Preparation Manual
Section 4: Sample Selected-Response Questions
Social Studies 7–12 (232)
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This section presents some sample exam questions for you to review as part of your preparation for the exam. To demonstrate how each competency may be assessed, sample questions are accompanied by the competency that they measure. While studying, you may wish to read the competency before and after you consider each sample question. Please note that the competency statements do not appear on the actual exam.
For each sample exam question, there is a correct answer and a rationale for each answer option. The sample questions are included to illustrate the formats and types of questions you will see on the exam; however, your performance on the sample questions should not be viewed as a predictor of your performance on the actual exam.
Domain I—World History
Competency 001—(Ancient World Civilizations): The teacher understands significant historical events and developments in ancient world civilizations, factors influencing the development of ancient world civilizations and major characteristics and contributions of ancient world civilizations.
1. Most early civilizations of Afro-Eurasia arose in physical environments that
featured
-
abundant temperate grasslands that could be used for the pasture of
livestock.
-
easy access to existing major long-distance trade networks.
-
proximity to a reliable freshwater source that could be used for crop
irrigation.
-
plentiful wild game, fish and other food sources available for hunting and
foraging.
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option C is correct.
Most major early civilizations of Afro-Eurasia — the
civilization of the Nile Valley in Egypt, the Mesopotamian civilizations, the
Harappan civilization of the Indus River valley and civilization of the Huang He
valley in China — developed in areas of limited natural rainfall but relatively
reliable and seasonally abundant freshwater supplied by the flooding of major
rivers. In such areas, the relatively mild climate together with the water and
fertilizing silt deposited by the rivers combined to produce very high agricultural
yields, which, in turn, allowed these regions to sustain the large populations that
gave rise to early civilizations. Option A is incorrect. It describes the typical
environment of the steppes of east-central Europe, north-central Asia and
regions on the fringes of the Fertile Crescent in southwestern Asia. Historically,
such regions have been the homelands of nomadic peoples, who might
occasionally become the founders of large powerful empires (e.g., the Mongol
Empire) but are usually not associated with the agrarian-based early civilizations.
Option B is incorrect. The proximity to well-established trade networks could
be a sustaining factor for an already established civilization, and most major
civilizations created their own network of trade routes connecting them to other
civilizations. But the existence of a long-distance trade network is not a
prerequisite for the formation of civilizations and some early river valley
civilizations, such as Harappa and Shang, appear to have emerged in relative
isolation. Option D is incorrect. Physical environments such as the one
described have existed in premodern times in several places around the world
(notably in the Pacific Northwest of the United States and Canada) and, while
they have tended to support relatively large and politically complex societies,
they are not typically associated with the early river civilizations of Afro-Eurasia.
Read the excerpt below from the Code of Hammurabi of ancient Babylon
and answer the question that follows.
If anyone is committing a robbery and is caught, then he shall be put to death.
If the robber is not caught, then shall he who was robbed claim under oath
the amount of his loss; then shall the community . . . on whose ground and
territory and in whose domain [the robbery took place] compensate him for
the goods stolen.
2. The excerpt above from the Code of Hammurabi suggests that
-
Babylonian law applied both the concept of individual responsibility and the
concept of collective responsibility in assigning penalties for crimes.
-
penalties for crimes in ancient Babylonian society were dependent largely on
the social status of the criminal.
-
Babylonian society was plagued by unusually high rates of crimes against
personal property.
-
punishments for crimes in Babylonian society were mostly designed to
protect the property of the king and members of the nobility.
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option A is correct.
The excerpted provisions from the code show that the
crime of robbery could be punished either by the execution of the offender or, if
the offender was not known, by requiring that the community pool its resources
to compensate the victim of the crime. Such collective responsibility provisions
were fairly common in premodern legal systems because they were thought to
provide an incentive for local communities to cooperate with authorities in the
investigation of crimes. Option B is incorrect. In other provisions of the Code of
Hammurabi, the penalties for crimes do often hinge on the social status of the
victim (but not of the criminal); for instance, different penalties are prescribed
for causing death or bodily injury to a free-born Babylonian male versus a slave,
but the provisions quoted here make no mention of social status. Option C is
incorrect. Although sometimes it is possible to use the activities penalized in
legal codes to draw inferences about the social realities in ancient times, it is
usually not possible to generalize about the prevalence of specific crimes or
classes of crimes based on their legal proscription. Option D is incorrect.
The legal provisions excerpted in the text are not limited to crimes against the
property of the king or the members of the nobility. So, while Babylonian law
may well have provided for particularly harsh punishments for such crimes (in
common with other premodern legal systems), that is not a conclusion supported
by the passage.
3. In which of the following ways did the migrations of Bantu-speaking peoples
into many regions of sub-Saharan Africa in the period 1000 B.C. to 500 A.D.
most fundamentally affect the continent?
-
The migrations led to the diffusion of many Egyptian traditions
-
The migrations triggered the spread of Islam
-
The migrations helped establish a large empire of Bantu speakers that
controlled much of sub-Saharan Africa
-
The migrations led to the spread of settled agriculture
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option D is correct.
While most groups living in central and southern Africa
before the Bantu migrations subsisted largely by hunting and foraging, the
Bantu-speaking peoples are believed to have adopted agriculture and cattle
herding before they began migrating out of their ancestral homeland in west-central Africa. The Bantu-speaking peoples’ agricultural and pastoralist life is
believed to have given them a significant advantage as they competed for land
and resources with pre-Bantu central and southern African groups, such as the
forest peoples of the Congo basin and the Khoisan peoples of southern Africa.
Option A is incorrect. The ancestral homeland of the Bantu-speaking peoples
is believed to have been in west-central Africa (in present-day Nigeria and
Cameroon), far from Egypt and the Egypt-influenced cultures of Nubia/Sudan
in north-east Africa. Option B is incorrect. The Bantu migrations began long
before the arrival of Islam in Africa and the original Bantu-speaking peoples are
believed to have had polytheist and/or animist religious beliefs. While in later
periods many Bantu-speaking peoples adopted Islam (notably the Swahili
peoples of the east African coast), they did so centuries after their initial
migrations. Option C is incorrect. The Bantu migrations were primarily a
demographic process, not a political event. Some Bantu-speaking peoples
eventually established powerful states (for example, the Kingdom of Kongo
in the period circa 1400–1500 A.D. or the Zulu Kingdom of the early 1800s), but
no single Bantu state ever came close to controlling much of sub-Saharan Africa.
Competency 002—(World History from 600 A.D. to 1450 A.D.): The teacher understands significant historical events, developments and traditional points of reference in world history from 600 A.D. to 1450 A.D.
4. Which of the following was an effect of the Crusades on western Europe?
-
The Crusaders’ daily interactions with Muslims and Eastern Orthodox
Christians led the papacy to adopt an official policy of greater tolerance for
diverse religious beliefs and practices
-
The Crusades’ initial successes led to a wave of migration of German and
French peasants to the Middle East and the depopulation of some regions of
western Europe
-
The Crusades led to an increased trade between western Europe, Byzantium
and the Muslim states of the eastern Mediterranean, thereby promoting
European economic expansion
-
The Crusades led to a decrease in the power and prestige of European
monarchies, as many monarchs were absent from their kingdoms for long
periods of time while fighting in the Crusades
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option C is correct.
The Crusades had a net positive economic effect on the
development of western Europe. The Crusader states served important trade
entrepôts and increased both the volume and the variety of trade between Asia
and western Europe. The Crusades were beneficial for the economies of Italian
maritime city-states, such as Venice and Genoa, whose merchants established
themselves as the primary European intermediaries for the long-distance Asian
luxury trade with Europe. The Crusades also indirectly contributed to the
development and growth of credit in western Europe, as many rulers had to seek
private loans to finance their armies. Option A is incorrect. Daily interactions
between western Europeans and Muslims and/or Eastern Orthodox Christians did
occur as a result of the Crusades, and some interactions may have led to a more
tolerant and amicable coexistence. But the Papacy’s official position on relations
with other religious groups did not become more tolerant as a result of the
Crusades. The Papacy used the Crusades to promote religious intolerance, most
notably against Muslims, but also against Jews living in Europe, whose systematic
persecution is generally considered to have begun with the Crusades. Option B
is incorrect. Except for the so-called People’s Crusade of 1096, motivated in
part by peasants’ desire to acquire land, the Crusades did not entail large-scale
peasant migrations. No region of western Europe suffered serious depopulation
as a result of the Crusades. Option D is incorrect. Historians have argued that
the Crusades provided a boost to European feudal monarchies by allowing
monarchs to establish a firmer hold of royal revenues and exercise closer control
over potentially unruly vassals. Going on a Crusade was seen as a noble or heroic
undertaking, and crusading monarchs could expect to see their legitimacy
increased rather than decreased. Crusading monarchs, most notably Richard I of
England, did leave their countries for long periods, but such absences were rarely
detrimental to the monarchy over the long run.
Competency 003—(World History from 1450 A.D. to 1750 A.D.): The teacher understands significant historical events, developments and traditional points of reference in world history from 1450 A.D. to 1750 A.D.
5. Which of the following statements best describes a major impact of the
Columbian Exchange on Europe?
-
New food crops from the Western Hemisphere promoted better health and
longer life spans in Europe
-
Immigration from the Western Hemisphere significantly altered the ethnic
makeup of Europe
-
New diseases from the Western Hemisphere killed close to 90 percent of
Europe’s pre-Columbian population
-
New draft animals from the Western Hemisphere greatly increased the
productivity of European farmers
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option A is correct.
New World crops such as corn, potatoes, beans, tomatoes
and peppers began to be widely cultivated in Europe in the 1600s and 1700s and
became important sources of carbohydrates, protein and vitamins in the diets of
Europeans. Some New World plants, such as corn, also became significant fodder
crops in Europe, giving a boost to European meat and dairy production and
consumption. Option B is incorrect. With the exception of a few individuals
taken by early European explorers back to Europe, American Indians did not
migrate east across the Atlantic and did not alter the ethnic makeup of Europe.
Option C is incorrect. Syphilis is the only major disease believed by many
scholars to have originated in the Americas and to have spread to Europe as part
of the Columbian Exchange. But despite its relatively high mortality rates and the
absence of effective treatment until the twentieth century, syphilis did not kill a
large percentage of Europeans. Option D is incorrect. With the exception of the
llama (domesticated and used to transport goods in the Andean highlands of
South America), pre-Columbian New World societies did not use draft animals.
Instead, European settlers brought Eastern Hemisphere draft animals, such as
donkeys, cattle and horses, to the Americas.
6. Which of the following was the most significant effect on Europe of the
Ottoman conquest of Constantinople (1453) and the eastern Mediterranean
(1516–1517)?
-
The Ottoman Empire took control of most of the major trade routes
connecting Europe to India and China.
-
The Ottoman Empire began conscripting young Balkan Christian boys to
become Janissaries.
-
Ottoman missionaries spread Islam throughout the Mediterranean region.
-
The threat of further Ottoman territorial expansion led to the political
unification of much of central and western Europe.
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option A is correct
because the Ottoman conquest of Constantinople in 1453,
followed by the Levant and Egypt in 1517, gave the empire control of most of the
major trade routes used by Europeans to import luxury items, such as spices,
from India, China and the East Indies. This near-monopoly was short-lived,
however; European merchants and explorers soon expanded direct sea trade
with South and East Asia via the newly established trade routes around the
southern tip of Africa. Option B is incorrect because although the Ottoman
government did in fact rely on Balkan Christian conscripts to fill the ranks of the
Janissaries (the sultan’s elite military units), this policy predated the conquest
of Constantinople and affected a relatively small number of people in Europe.
Option C is incorrect because the Ottoman conquest resulted in the spread
of Islam only to parts of the Balkans, not the entire Mediterranean region.
Option D is incorrect because although many European leaders and political
thinkers called for unification in response to the threat of further Ottoman
advances, Europe remained politically fragmented.
Competency 004—(World History from 1750 A.D. to the Present): The teacher understands significant historical events and developments in world history from 1750 A.D. to the present.
7. In contrast to the First Industrial Revolution, the Second Industrial Revolution
was characterized mostly by
-
innovations in the textile industry and steam power.
-
innovations in mass production and electrification.
-
heavy reliance on child labor.
-
heavy reliance on forced labor.
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option B is correct.
The Second Industrial Revolution, which began in Europe
and the United States in the second half of the nineteenth century, saw the
first extensive use of electricity in industry as well as extensive automation of
production, the widespread use of powered equipment and more standardization
of industrial processes. Option A is incorrect because innovations in textile
production and the use of steam power are more characteristic of the First
Industrial Revolution that began in Britain in the late 1700s. Option C is
incorrect because many governments actually took steps to curb the use
of child labor in industry during the Second Industrial Revolution. Option D is
incorrect because both industrial revolutions relied on wage labor as opposed to
forced labor.
8. The Chinese government responded to the 1989 protests in Tiananmen
Square by
-
halting all trade with Europe and the United States.
-
appeasing protesters by holding democratic elections.
-
forcibly dispersing the demonstrations with tanks and troops.
-
calling for a session of the United Nations Security Council to condemn
the protests.
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option C is correct.
Concerned that the student-led protests in Tiananmen
Square were growing larger and spreading across the country, the Chinese
Communist Party leadership declared martial law in late May 1989 and
mobilized the army to clear the square of protesters. By June 4, the student
demonstrations in the square had been dispersed, with a large number of
casualties among the protesters. Option A is incorrect. Because the Chinese
Communist Party had only made its tentative first steps toward economic
liberalization in 1988, its trade with Europe and the United States at the
time was limited. Halting trade would not have had any significant impact
on the student protests and was not a response that the Chinese leadership
contemplated seriously. Option B is incorrect. Although the students’ protests
were pro-democratic in a broad sense, the student leaders realized that
demanding fair democratic elections in 1989 China was an unrealistic goal.
Therefore the movement’s stated goals were centered mostly on limiting
government corruption and economic mismanagement. Before repressing the
demonstration, the government considered making various concessions, but they
did not include democratic elections. Option D is incorrect. Many world leaders,
including the UN Secretary General, criticized or condemned the action of the
Chinese government following the dispersal of the protests, but the Chinese
government itself did not seek a UN condemnation of the protests, preferring to
treat them as a matter of domestic Chinese policy.
Domain II—U.S. History
Competency 005—(Exploration and Colonization): The teacher understands significant historical events and developments in the exploration and colonization of North America and the development of colonial society.
9. Which of the following groups of people constituted the main source of labor for
the Chesapeake colonies before 1660?
-
Enslaved Africans
-
American Indians
-
Landowning families
-
Indentured servants
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option D is correct.
Indentured servants were the main source of labor in the
Chesapeake colonies before 1660. Indentured servants were typically people who
wished to emigrate but who could not afford to pay for the voyage to Virginia.
People in this situation often agreed to work for a landowner for a fixed term
(usually seven years) in return for the cost of their passage. After 1660, laws
were put into place that defined slavery by race and as a lifelong status, greatly
decreasing the need to rely on indentured servants. Option A is incorrect
because enslaved Africans became the main source of labor in the Chesapeake
colonies only after 1660, mainly as a result of laws put into place making slavery
racial and lifelong. In addition, the cost of passage from England began to
decrease in the late 1600s, and thus fewer emigrants had to indenture
themselves on arrival in the colonies. Option B is incorrect. American Indians
were not a significant source of labor in the colonies. Efforts by colonists to
enslave the native population proved ineffective. Option C is incorrect.
Landowning families controlled the main source of labor; they were not the main
source of labor themselves.
10. The establishment of the House of Burgesses in 1619 was significant because it
was the first
-
Protestant church founded in the English colonies.
-
assembly of elected representatives of English colonists in North America.
-
instance of democratic decision making at a New England town hall meeting.
-
stock exchange set up by the English colonists in North America.
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option B is correct.
The House of Burgesses was the first assembly of elected
representatives of English colonists in North America. The first meeting was held
in Jamestown, Virginia, in 1619 as part of an effort to make conditions in the
colony more agreeable for the inhabitants. Option A is incorrect because the
House of Burgesses was not a religious establishment, but rather a political
one. Option C is incorrect. The House of Burgesses was in Virginia, not New
England, and was an assembly of elected representatives, not an open town
meeting. Option D is incorrect. The first stock exchange in the original colonies
was located in Philadelphia. The House of Burgesses was a political institution
rather than a financial institution.
Competency 006—(Revolutionary Era and the Early Years of the Republic): The teacher understands significant historical events and developments of the Revolutionary Era and the early years of the Republic, including the foundations of representative government in the United States.
11. The British government issued the Proclamation of 1763 primarily as a way to
-
help pay for the cost of the French and Indian War.
-
reassert Britain’s claims to the lands of eastern Canada.
-
prevent costly conflicts between colonists and Native Americans.
-
impose British law on the Indian nations west of the Appalachian Mountains.
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option C is correct.
The Proclamation of 1763 was issued at the end of the
French and Indian war and forbade colonists from settling past the Appalachian
Mountains. The main purpose of the proclamation was to stabilize relations with
American Indians through regulation of trade, settlement and land purchases on
the western frontier. Option A is incorrect because, although one result of the
French and Indian War was the imposition of new taxes on the colonies, it was
not a main reason for the proclamation. Option B is incorrect because the
defeat of the French had already established British claims to eastern Canada,
and the proclamation did not deal with this issue. Option D is incorrect because
the proclamation was intended to create more stable relations with American
Indians, in part by keeping British colonists and American Indians separate. The
proclamation did not seek to impose British law on Indians living west of the
Appalachians.
12. In agreeing to the Three-Fifths Compromise at the Constitutional Convention,
the framers delayed reaching a clear solution to which of the following issues?
-
The right of women to vote
-
The protection of individual rights
-
The future of slavery
-
The balance of power in Congress between large and small states
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option C is correct.
The Three-Fifths Compromise was a compromise between
representatives of northern and southern states at the Constitutional Convention.
According to the agreement, each slave was to be counted as three-fifths of a
person for purposes of calculating population and apportionment in the House
of Representatives. The compromise delayed dealing with the future of slavery
because it implicitly recognized the existence of slavery and it also increased the
power of the slave states, but it did not definitively establish the legality of
slavery in national law. Option A is incorrect because the issue of women’s
suffrage was not the subject of the Three-Fifths Compromise. Option B is
incorrect because the protection of individual rights was not dealt with in
the Three-Fifths Compromise. Option D is incorrect. The balance of power
in Congress between small and large states was decided with the Great
Compromise (or Connecticut Compromise), which created a bicameral legislature.
Competency 007—(Westward Expansion, the Civil War and Reconstruction): The teacher understands significant historical events and developments related to westward expansion, the Civil War and Reconstruction.
Use the excerpt below from a Georgia newspaper in 1856 to answer the
question that follows.
Free Society! We sicken at the name. What is it but a conglomeration of greasy
mechanics, filthy operatives, small-fisted farmers, and moon-struck theorists? . . .
The prevailing class one meets [with in the North] is that of mechanics struggling to
be genteel, and small farmers who do their own drudgery; and yet are hardly fit for
association with a southern gentleman’s body servant.
13. The newspaper article quoted above could best be used to illustrate which
aspect of American life in the late 1850s?
-
The growing threat of slave rebellions in the South
-
The increasing degree of social mobility in the Northern and Southern
sections of the country
-
The growing hostility between the Northern and Southern sections of the
country
-
The increasing economic interdependence of the Northern and Southern
states
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option C is correct.
The excerpt from a Georgia newspaper in 1856 exemplifies
increasing sectional tension over the issue of slavery versus free labor in the
1850s. It also highlights cultural differences about ideas on class between the
North and the South. Option A is incorrect because although slaveholders
did fear slave rebellions, the article cited is not addressing that issue. Slave
rebellions had taken place before the 1850s, such as Nat Turner’s rebellion
in 1831. Option B is incorrect because social mobility increased prior to the
Civil War primarily in the North and much less so in the South. Greater social
mobility in the North was possible because of industrial advancements and the
greater availability of jobs and opportunities outside of agriculture. Option D is
incorrect. While it is true that there was a degree of interdependency between
the Northern and Southern economies — for instance, textile mills in the North
used Southern cotton, and the Northern states supplied manufactured goods and
credit to Southern planters — the excerpt does not address this issue.
14. Which of the following developments during the Reconstruction period after
the Civil War demonstrated an effort to counteract the reforms of Radical
Republicans?
-
The federal appointment of provisional state governors
-
The impeachment of Andrew Johnson
-
The issuance of Black Codes
-
The creation of the Freedmen’s Bureau
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option C is correct.
Black Codes were state laws passed in the South after the
Civil War that limited the civil rights and liberties of African Americans. Radical
Republicans were in favor of the expansion of rights for African Americans.
Option A is incorrect because the appointment of provisional state governors
by the federal government was a policy favored by some Radical Republicans who
feared that governors elected by Southern voters might not be committed to the
reform agenda supported by Radical Republicans. Option B is incorrect because
the impeachment of Andrew Johnson was carried out by Radical Republicans, not
in opposition to them. Option D is incorrect because the Freedman’s Bureau, a
federal government agency set up to aid freed slaves, was supported by Radical
Republicans.
Competency 008—(The United States as a World Power): The teacher understands significant historical events and developments related to the emergence and role of the United States as a world power and the effects of major decisions and conflicts on the United States.
15. Which of the following was a significant objection raised by members of the
United States Senate to joining the League of Nations after World War I?
-
It did not require reparations to be paid by Germany
-
It could entangle the United States in future European military conflicts
-
It took away the president’s power to declare war
-
It gave veto power over major policy decisions to China and the
Soviet Union
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option B is correct.
In 1918 the United States Senate was concerned that
Article 10 of the League Covenant might be used to commit American troops
to war without congressional approval, and there was a general opposition to
any American involvement in European affairs. Option A is incorrect because
the Treaty of Versailles, one of the peace treaties that ended World War I,
stipulated that reparations be paid by Germany. Option C is incorrect because
the League of Nations did not affect powers given by the United States
Constitution (Congress has the power to declare war, not the president).
Option D is incorrect because issues of veto are associated with the United
Nations, which was created at the end of World War II. The League of Nations
allowed any member, regardless of status, to have veto power in certain
situations.
16. Which of the following was a notable foreign policy success of President Richard
Nixon’s administration?
-
Establishing relations with the People’s Republic of China
-
Winning the war in Vietnam
-
Negotiating a peace accord between Israel and Egypt
-
Isolating the Soviet Union from the world community
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option A is correct.
Nixon’s 1972 visit to China marked the first time a
United States president had visited the People’s Republic of China. The result
of the meeting was an important diplomatic document known as the Shanghai
Communiqué, which stated that it was in the interest of all nations for China
and the United States to work toward the normalization of their relationship.
Option B is incorrect because the United States did not win the war in Vietnam.
The United States withdrew its forces from the conflict in 1973, and the
government of South Vietnam, which the United States supported, fell to the
Communist North Vietnamese in 1975. Option C is incorrect because the peace
accord between Israel and Egypt, known as the Camp David Accords, was a
foreign policy success for the Carter administration and were signed in 1979.
Option D is incorrect because President Nixon improved relations with the
Soviet Union rather than isolating it. During his administration, Nixon and Soviet
leader Leonid Brezhnev reached agreements on trade and negotiated arms
control treaties.
Competency 009—(Political, Economic and Social Developments from 1877 to the Present): The teacher understands significant political, economic and social developments in the United States from 1877 to the present.
17. A major goal of Progressive Era reformers such as Jane Addams and Jacob Riis
was to overcome the
-
socialist tendencies of most reformers in the United States at the time.
-
use of social science to explain the nature and causes of poverty.
-
spread of poverty amid conspicuous displays of wealth.
-
expanding use of government regulation to address social ills.
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option C is correct.
The Progressive Era was a period of social activism and
political reform from the 1890s to the 1920s in the United States. Reformers
were committed to addressing the waste, inefficiency, corruption and increasing
disparities in wealth inherited from the Gilded Age. Option A is incorrect
because some of the prominent reformers of the Progressive Era were socialists
or were sympathetic toward socialism and its supporters. Option B is incorrect
because some reformers did use social science to explain the nature and causes
of poverty. The Progressive Era brought about the modernization of research to
the social science disciplines at emerging universities. Option D is incorrect
because many Progressive reformers did want to expand government regulation
to address social ills; e.g., the unionization of labor, regulation of the food
industry and the prohibition of alcohol.
18. What was the purpose of the G.I. Bill of Rights passed by Congress in 1944?
-
To provide educational and financial benefits to soldiers returning home
from war
-
To ensure that soldiers accused of war crimes received fair trials
-
To support African-American veterans who faced discrimination after leaving
the military
-
To guarantee that members of the armed services had the same
constitutional protections as civilians
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option A is correct.
The G.I. Bill of Rights established a number of benefits
for veterans, including tuition for college and subsidies for home mortgages.
The bill was passed to allay concerns that returning soldiers would face poor
prospects as the wartime economy shifted to peacetime production. The G.I. Bill
of Rights enabled millions of veterans to obtain higher education and to become
homeowners, boosting the United States economy significantly in the postwar
years. Option B is incorrect. United States soldiers were not tried for war
crimes during or after World War II. Option C is incorrect. Although many
African-American veterans did in fact face discrimination after the war,
the G.I. Bill of Rights was not intended to address this problem. Option D is
incorrect. Members of the military were subject to the military justice system.
The G.I. Bill of Rights did not deal with this issue.
Domain III—Texas History
Competency 010—(Exploration and Colonization): The teacher understands significant historical developments and events in Texas through the beginning of the Mexican National Era in 1821.
19. Which of the following American Indian tribes inhabited present-day Texas and
is best known for construction of ceremonial mounds?
-
Caddo
-
Pueblo
-
Apache
-
Comanche
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option A is correct.
The Caddo people are historically known for arranging soil
and sediments into large mound structures. These structures served religious
and residential purposes and were often used for ceremonial purposes too.
Option B is incorrect. The Pueblo people are best known for their construction
of communities of apartment-like structures made of stone, sediment and
adobe mud. These communities became known by Spanish settlers as pueblos.
Option C is incorrect. Apache groups used several types of housing structures,
depending on what part of the southwestern United States that particular group
lived in. These housing types included tepees, wickiups and hogans. Option D
is incorrect. The Comanche people are historically known for their acquisition
and domestication of horses. Using mounts, the Comanche people proved to be
effective nomadic hunter-gatherers and did not build ceremonial mounds or other
permanent structures.
20. To preserve the Spanish claims to land in Texas in the 1680s, Alonso de León
was sent on several expeditions to
-
capture American Indians for manual labor.
-
destroy the French settlement at Fort St. Louis.
-
found a Spanish settlement at the mouth of the Mississippi River.
-
supply horses to American Indian groups and convince them to fight as
Spanish allies.
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option B is correct.
In 1684 the French explorer Sieur de la Salle set out to
establish a colony along the Mississippi River but ended up establishing Fort St.
Louis on the Texas coast. When Spanish leaders heard rumors of a French
settlement in Texas, they chose Alonso de León to lead an expedition to destroy
the settlement. The first, second, and third expeditions were unsuccessful, but in
1689 de León finally discovered Fort St. Louis, which had by that time been
abandoned by the French. Option A is incorrect. While it is true that American
Indians were sometimes captured and used as servants and that some American
Indian groups sold slaves to the Spanish, Alonso de León’s mission did not
involve the capturing of American Indians for manual labor. Option C is
incorrect. While the Spanish explorer Hernando de Soto was the first European
to cross the Mississippi River in the 1500s, he saw the river as more of an
obstacle to his main goal further west. After a century of virtually no exploration
of the area, the French explorer La Salle claimed much of the land along the river
for France. De León was not tasked with founding a settlement at the mouth of
the Mississippi. Option D is incorrect. American Indian groups such as the
Comanche had domesticated horses before migrating to the southwest regions,
and horses were the principal source of wealth for the nomadic groups on the
Texas plains. Increasingly resistant to Spanish settlement in Texas, tribes such as
the Comanche and Apache often fought openly against the Spanish, raiding their
settlements and burning their missions. De León did not seek to supply the
Indians with horses.
Competency 011—(Independence, Statehood, Civil War Reconstruction and Aftermath): The teacher understands significant historical developments and events in Texas from 1821 to 1900.
21. Which of the following was the most significant threat to the survival of the
Republic of Texas?
-
The expansion of slavery
-
The discovery of oil
-
The Córdova Rebellion
-
The Santa Fe Expedition
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option C is correct.
In 1838 settlers in Nacogdoches discovered a plot between
Mexican and American Indian groups to rebel against the new Republic of Texas.
A prominent settler in Nacogdoches named Vicente Córdova had kept strong ties
with the Mexican government and, in disagreement with the terms of Texas
independence, planned a rebellion with help from the Cherokee. The rebellion
aimed to overthrow the Texas Republic. Option A is incorrect. The 1836
Constitution of the Texas Republic instituted various measures to reduce the
citizenship rights of free black citizens and promoted the introduction of new
slaves into the Republic as cotton cultivation increased. The increased import and
purchase of slaves during this period provided significant customs revenue to the
government of the Republic. Option B is incorrect. The discovery of oil did not
have any significant effects until the strike at Spindletop in 1901, long after
Texas had ceased to be an independent republic. The Spindletop strike set Texas
in motion to become the largest oil-producing state in the Union for several
decades. This oil boom generated exceptional economic development. Option D
is incorrect. The Santa Fe Expedition was an attempt by Republic president
Mirabeau Lamar to increase trade with and through the New Mexico region and
claim the Santa Fe Trail for the Republic of Texas. While the expedition itself was
unsuccessful and increased tensions between the United States and Mexico, the
survival of the Republic of Texas was not directly threatened.
22. During the Civil War, most of the fighting between Confederate and Union
forces in Texas took place
-
in the Gulf Coast region.
-
along the border with the Indian Territory.
-
along the length of the Rio Grande.
-
on the western plains.
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option A is correct.
In the 1860s most of the population of Texas lived on or
near the Gulf Coast, which was the site of most of the economic activity in the
state. Four major Civil War battles took place there: the first and second battles
of Sabine Pass and the first and second battles of Galveston. Option B is
incorrect. Although some fighting took place in the Indian Territory (present-day
Oklahoma), no major Civil War battles took place along the Texas border with the
Indian Territory. Option C is incorrect. Only one major Civil War battle took
place near the mouth of the Rio Grande: the Battle of Palmito Ranch. Option D
is incorrect. Although there was considerable small-scale fighting on the
western plains between White settlers and American Indians during the Civil War,
there was no combat between Confederate forces and Union forces in this region.
Competency 012—(Texas in the Twentieth and Twenty-first Centuries): The teacher understands significant historical developments and events in Texas from 1900 to the present.
23. During World War II, Texas became instrumental in the war effort by
-
vastly expanding its petroleum-refining industry to produce more fuel.
-
mandating the strictest gas-rationing policy in the nation.
-
becoming the center of research and development for the Manhattan Project.
-
becoming the main base for antisubmarine warfare against the Germans.
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option A is correct.
With delays and stoppages in petroleum production
and refining elsewhere in the world, Texas oil refineries began to operate
at maximum capacity to meet the needs of the Allied war effort. Texan oil
and fuel products made a major contribution to the eventual Allied victory.
Option B is incorrect. Although the rationing of gasoline was originally
mandated by seventeen Atlantic and Pacific Northwest states, rationing
regulations were eventually taken over by the federal government under the
Office of Price Administration, and gas rationing was not stricter in Texas than
elsewhere. Option C is incorrect. Although the Pantex Ordnance plant in
Amarillo would one day assemble nuclear weapons at its facilities, the plant
primarily manufactured conventional bombs during World War II. The center for
research and development of the first atomic bombs was in Los Alamos, New
Mexico. Option D is incorrect. There was relatively little German submarine
activity in the Gulf of Mexico during World War II, and Texas was too far from the
main theater of action in the North Atlantic to serve as an important base for
Allied planes or ships guarding merchant convoys and attacking German subs.
24. Which of the following Texans revolutionized medical care by inventing a major
component of the heart-lung machine and making open heart surgery possible?
-
Michael E. DeBakey
-
Denton A. Cooley
-
T. C. Hsu
-
R. Lee Clark
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option A is correct.
Cardiac surgeon Michael E. DeBakey is best known for
inventing the roller pump, which later became an essential component of the
heart-lung machine. This invention and its use in the heart-lung machine made
open-heart surgery possible. Option B is incorrect. Denton A. Cooley is a
heart surgeon most famous for performing the first implantation of a completely
artificial heart. Option C is incorrect. T. C. Hsu is a cell biologist who correctly
determined the number of chromosomes within the nucleus of a sperm or egg
cell. Option D is incorrect. R. Lee Clark is an oncologist who worked to advance
cancer prevention and control throughout the world.
Domain IV—Geography, Culture and the Behavioral and Social Sciences
Competency 013—(Physical Geography Concepts, Natural Processes and Earth’s Physical Features): The teacher understands basic geographic concepts, natural processes involving the physical environment and Earth’s physical features.
Use the information on the map of Texas below to answer the question
that follows.
25. The shaded region on the map represents which of the following climate zones?
-
Warm semiarid
-
Humid continental
-
Humid subtropical
-
Mediterranean
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option C is correct.
This region is hot and humid most of the year with warm
winters. The shaded region on the map is affected by warm, moist air rising off
the Gulf of Mexico, which circulates in a pattern from south to northeast. This
pattern causes the eastern part of the state to have relatively high levels of
precipitation compared to western Texas. Option A is incorrect. Warm semiarid
climates are found in southwestern and western Texas and feature relatively low
annual rainfall amounts (less than twenty inches of rain per year). Option B is
incorrect. Continental climates are those regions that are mostly unaffected by
marine weather patterns. These climates feature extreme differences between
summer and winter temperatures, with very hot summers and very cold winters,
and are found in regions such as the American Midwest. Option D is incorrect.
Mediterranean climates have mild, wet winters and long, dry summers. In the
United States, this climate is found in coastal California.
26. A map scale of 1:4,000,000 represents
-
one inch on the map for every 4,000,000 feet on the ground.
-
one inch on the map for every 4,000,000 inches on the ground.
-
one centimeter on the map for every 4,000,000 meters on the ground.
-
one centimeter on the map for every 4,000,000 kilometers on the ground.
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option B is correct.
Geographers express the scale of a map as a simple ratio
of a length on the map to the length it represents on the actual ground. Thus, on
a map drawn to 1:4,000,000 scale, one inch on the map represents 4,000,000
inches on the ground; one centimeter represents 4,000,000 centimeters, etc.
Options A, C and D are all incorrect expressions of the ratio because they
combine different units of length.
Competency 014—(Global and Regional Patterns of Culture and Human Geography): The teacher understands global and regional patterns of culture and characteristics and processes associated with different cultural regions.
27. Which of the following best represents an application of the geographic principle
of region?
-
Using a map to identify patterns of erosion in a local floodplain
- Constructing a grid and labeling key reference points such as the equator,
prime meridian and International Date Line
-
Using a chart to show how out-migration has affected a city over time
-
Constructing a table of several countries and listing common political, social
and economic characteristics
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option D is correct.
Constructing such a table enables the identification of
the common factors that give a group of countries a distinct regional identity or
the specification of a characteristic that is common across country boundaries.
Option A is incorrect because such an activity does not employ the geographic
concept of formal region. Option B is incorrect because this activity helps
determine the absolute location of a place, not define a region. Option C is
incorrect because this activity serves as a data analysis but is not part of
recognizing or defining a region.
28. A country is most likely to join the European Union for which of the following
reasons?
-
So that its citizens can use the same currency when traveling to other
European countries
-
So that it can exercise more economic power in the world market
-
So that it can take unilateral military action to protect its interests
-
So that it can have the assurance of retaining its unique culture
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option B is correct.
The European Union, an economic union that developed
out of earlier western European free-trade organizations, aimed to abolish trade
barriers and encouraged the free movement of goods, people and labor within
the union. The EU acts as a common market and member states benefit from
being part of a much larger economic unit. Option A is incorrect because not all
EU members use the same currency. Though many members do use the euro,
some (most notably the United Kingdom) continue to use their own currency
for domestic transactions. Option C is incorrect because the ability to take
unilateral military action would not be enhanced by joining the EU. The EU
emphasizes multilateral cooperation, and does not currently have direct authority
over member states’ military affairs, but joining the EU would probably lessen a
country’s ability or willingness to take unilateral military action. Option D is
incorrect because the desire to preserve a unique culture would be unlikely to
motivate a country to join the EU. Critics of the EU have argued that the free
movement of goods and people in fact has a tendency to break down local
cultures and threatens individual countries in Europe with a kind of cultural
homogenization.
Competency 015—(Interactions between Human Groups and the Physical Environment): The teacher understands the nature and significance of interactions among peoples, places and environments.
29. Commercial agriculture is most often practiced on farms where
-
a family or village community produces a crop for its own use.
-
no chemical fertilizers or pesticides are used.
-
humans and animals perform intense physical labor.
-
a single crop is grown for sale and processing.
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option D is correct.
A common type of commercial agriculture features the
production of a single crop (monoculture) for sale to processors. Monoculture
is often more efficient than producing multiple crops on the same farm.
Option A is incorrect because this option describes subsistence agriculture.
Option B is incorrect because although there is an expanding organic
agricultural sector that seeks to minimize or eliminate the use of chemical
pesticides, herbicides and fertilizers, most commercial agricultural enterprises
continue to use them. Option C is incorrect because most commercial
agriculture today is mechanized to a great extent, thereby greatly reducing the
need for humans or animals to perform intense, sustained, physical labor.
Competency 016—(Sociological, Anthropological and Psychological Concepts and Processes): The teacher applies sociological, anthropological and psychological concepts and processes to understand cultural formation and change, intergroup relations and individual development.
30. When people imitate the way celebrities dress, act or talk, it is an example of
which of the following?
-
Classical conditioning
-
Operant conditioning
-
Social learning theory
-
Insight learning
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option C is correct
because social learning theory involves people learning by
observing models and imitating them. Option A is incorrect because in classical
conditioning, a response that is produced reflexively to a given stimulus is paired
with a neutral stimulus until the neutral stimulus alone produces the response.
Option B is incorrect because in operant conditioning, a person’s behavior
increases or decreases depending on whether it is reinforced or punished.
Option D is incorrect because in insight learning, the answer to a problem comes to the person without trial and error or repeated attempts.
Domain V—Government and Citizenship
Competency 017—(Democratic Principles and Government in the United States): The teacher understands the principles of democratic government and the structure and functioning of government in the United States.
31. Which of the following statements correctly explains how the United States
Constitution may be amended?
-
The president may propose an amendment, and Congress must ratify it by a
supermajority vote
-
Congress may propose an amendment by a two-thirds vote, and three-fourths of the states must ratify it
-
Three-fourths of the states may propose an amendment, and the Supreme
Court must ratify it by a two-thirds vote
-
Three-fourths of the states may propose an amendment, and the president
must ratify it
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option B is correct.
The process by which the United States Constitution may
be amended is outlined in Article V of the Constitution. Option A is incorrect.
The president does not propose amendments to the Constitution. A Congressional
supermajority vote is not required to pass an amendment. Option C is
incorrect. While Article V of the Constitution states that three-fourths of the
states may propose an amendment, the amendment cannot be ratified by the
Supreme Court. Proposed amendments are ratified by a national convention.
Option D is incorrect. While Article V of the Constitution states that three-fourths of the states may propose an amendment, the amendment cannot be
ratified by the president. Amendments proposed by the states must be ratified by
a national convention.
32. Which of the following is the purpose of the due process clause in the Fifth
Amendment?
-
To ensure that similar crimes have similar penalties
-
To guarantee that all citizens follow the law
-
To protect those accused of crimes
-
To guarantee trial by jury
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option C is correct.
The United States Constitution guarantees that legal
proceedings be fair and that those accused of crimes be given notice and an
opportunity to be heard in trial before being convicted. Furthermore, the United
States Constitution guarantees that all suspects are held as innocent until proven
guilty beyond a reasonable doubt in court. Option A is incorrect. Due process
of law does not refer to the magnitude or type of penalties for crimes. The
Eighth Amendment protects citizens from cruel and unusual punishments. This
amendment prevents such penalties as excessive fines, torture and arbitrary
punishments. Option B is incorrect. The Fifth Amendment does not establish
measures to ensure that all citizens follow the law. Regulating the behavior of
citizens through the enforcement of consequences is a core function of legal
authority. Option D is incorrect. The Fifth Amendment does not guarantee the
right to trial by jury; that guarantee is granted by the Sixth Amendment.
Read the list of statements below and answer the question that follows.
-
Some powers are delegated, such as declaring war and coining money.
-
Some powers are reserved, such as establishing schools and conducting
elections.
-
Some powers are shared, such as raising taxes and borrowing money.
33. The list above describes features of which of the following principles of the
Constitution?
-
Federalism
-
Rule of law
-
Popular sovereignty
-
Individual rights
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option A is correct.
The term "federalism" refers to the evolving relationship
between state governments and the federal government of the United States.
In the United States, some powers are shared between the state and federal
governments, and some powers are exclusive to the state governments or to
the federal government. Option B is incorrect. The term "rule of law" refers to
the process whereby governments make decisions based on established legal
principles. In the United States, the legal principles by which the government
makes its decisions are outlined in the United States Constitution. Option C
is incorrect. The term "popular sovereignty" refers to the principle that the
legitimacy of the government is created and sustained by the consent of
its citizens and that citizens are the source of political power. Option D is
incorrect. Citizens of the United States are guaranteed certain individual rights
by the United States Constitution and the Bill of Rights. These individual rights
cannot be expanded or taken away by any level of government without amending
the Constitution.
34. The passage of the Twenty-second Amendment, which limits the number of
terms a president can serve, was in reaction to the administration of which of
the following presidents?
-
William McKinley
-
Woodrow Wilson
-
Franklin Roosevelt
-
Harry Truman
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option C is correct.
The Twenty-second Amendment was passed in response to
Franklin Roosevelt’s four consecutive terms as president of the United States.
Although the Constitution as originally written contained no limitation on the
number of times the same person could be elected president, George
Washington’s refusal to run for a third term in 1796 set a precedent that was
generally respected until Franklin Roosevelt’s administration. After serving the
country for two terms from 1933 to 1940, Roosevelt broke with tradition and was
re-elected in 1940 and again in 1944 but died in office in April 1945. Supporters
of Roosevelt cited the Great Depression and the war in Europe as justifications,
but after his death, Congress and state legislatures amended the Constitution out
of concern that a multi-term president might become too powerful. Option A is
incorrect because William McKinley was assassinated in September 1901, early
in his second term, long before the amendment was ratified. Option B is
incorrect because Woodrow Wilson only served two terms from 1913 to 1921
and retired after his second term. Option D is incorrect. Although the Twenty-second Amendment was ratified in 1951 during Harry Truman’s presidency, it
was not a direct response to his administration, but instead a response to the
actions of his predecessor, Franklin Roosevelt.
Competency 019—(Types of Political Systems): The teacher understands the development of political systems and the similarities and differences among major historical and contemporary forms of government.
Read the list of statements below and answer the question that follows.
-
Signed in 1215
-
Affirmed feudal rights
-
Granted certain rights to nobles and all free men
-
Required the monarch to obey the law
35. Which of the following is the best title for the above information?
-
Justinian Code
-
Magna Carta
-
Hammurabi’s Code
-
Mayflower Compact
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option B is correct.
Issued by King John of England in 1215 A.D. under
pressure from rebellious noblemen, the Magna Carta affirmed the rights of feudal
lords and granted barons the power to collectively overrule the will of the king.
Article 29 of the Magna Carta grants that free men were also not to be denied
justice by the king. Option A is incorrect. Justinian’s Code was released as a
collection of fundamental works in jurisprudence between 529 and 534 A.D.
This code predated feudalism and is better known for setting precedents for
international law. Option C is incorrect. Hammurabi’s Code was issued circa
1750 B.C., predating feudal practices. The code distinguished the rights of the
people based on the social status of slaves and free persons, and the code placed
no limitations on monarchs. Option D is incorrect. The Mayflower Compact was
signed in 1620 A.D. The compact made no affirmation of feudal rights, and it did
not have the legal power to require a monarch to obey the law. The Compact did,
however, set forth the principle of equality among all citizens.
36. The United States Supreme Court cited the idea of separate but equal to justify
the decision in which of the following cases?
-
Plessy v. Ferguson
-
McCulloch v. Maryland
-
Dred Scott v. Sandford
-
Texas v. White
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option A is correct.
The Supreme Court decision in Plessy v. Ferguson upheld
the constitutionality of state laws requiring racial segregation in public facilities
under the doctrine of separate but equal, first established by the Morrill Act of
1890. Option B is incorrect. The Supreme Court decision in McCulloch v.
Maryland concerned the taxation of all bank notes not chartered in Maryland,
including those notes chartered by the Second Bank of the United States. The
court’s decision invoked the necessary and proper clause of the Constitution to
uphold the principle that state action may not impede the implied powers of
Congress. Option C is incorrect. The Supreme Court decision in Dred Scott v.
Sandford rejected the claim that a slave residing in a free territory would
automatically become free. This decision was made on the basis that slaves were
not considered citizens. Option D is incorrect. The Supreme Court decision in
Texas v. White concerned the sale of United States bonds by the state of Texas,
which had seceded from the Union.
Domain VI—Economics and Science, Technology and Society
Competency 020—(Economic Concepts and Types of Economic Systems): The teacher understands basic economic concepts, major developments in economic thought and various types of economic systems.
Use the information in the foreign exchange graph below to answer the
question that follows.

<
37. The graph above shows the supply (S) and demand (D1 and D2)D base 1 and D base 2 curves of
the Japanese yen in the foreign exchange market. Which of the following
transactions could cause the change in the international value of the Japanese
yen relative to the United States dollar that is shown by the shift from D1 and D2D base 1 and D base 2
on the graph?
-
Japanese firms increase their imports of iron ore from the United States
-
United States firms increase their exports of cars to Japan
-
Japanese tourists visit a theme park in the United States
-
United States consumers buy more toys produced in Japan
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option D is correct.
An increase in United States imports from Japan will
increase the demand for the Japanese yen (shifting the demand from D1 and D2D base 1 and D base 2),
thereby causing the Japanese yen to appreciate against the dollar. Alternatively,
the increase of United States imports from Japan would increase the supply of
dollars, causing it to depreciate against the yen. Option A is incorrect. An
increase in Japanese imports from the United States will increase the demand
for the United States dollar, not the Japanese yen, thereby causing the dollar to
appreciate against the Japanese yen. Alternatively, the increase in Japanese
imports from the United States would increase the supply of the yen, causing it
to depreciate against the dollar. Option B is incorrect. An increase in United
States exports to Japan will increase the demand for the United States dollar,
not the yen. Option C is incorrect. Japanese tourism in the United States is
considered a service import by the United States and will increase the demand
for the United States dollar, not the Japanese yen, thereby causing the dollar to
appreciate against the Japanese yen.
38. In a competitive market the equilibrium price of a good is determined by the
interaction of supply and demand. If the price of a good is above the market
equilibrium, there will be a
-
shortage of the good in the market because the quantity demanded exceeds
the quantity supplied.
-
shortage of the good in the market because the quantity supplied exceeds
the quantity demanded.
-
surplus of the good in the market because the quantity demanded exceeds
the quantity supplied.
-
surplus of the good in the market because the quantity supplied exceeds the
quantity demanded.
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option D is correct.
A surplus of the good is created when the price is set
above the market equilibrium, resulting in the quantity supplied exceeding
quantity demanded. Option A is incorrect. A shortage of the good is created
when the price is set below the market equilibrium, resulting in the quantity
demanded exceeding quantity supplied. Option B is incorrect. A shortage of
the good is created when the price is set below the market equilibrium, resulting
in the quantity demanded exceeding quantity supplied. Option C is incorrect.
A surplus of the good is created when the price is set above the market
equilibrium, resulting in the quantity supplied exceeding quantity demanded.
Use the table below, which contains macroeconomic data about a
hypothetical country, to answer the question that follows.
Economic Indicators |
|
Unemployment rate |
9.6% |
GDP growth rate |
−4.2% |
Inflation rate |
2.9% |
39. The economy of the country described in the table is undergoing which stage of
the business cycle?
-
Expansion
-
Peak
-
Recovery
-
Recession
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option D is correct.
The table shows that the country has a high unemployment
rate, is experiencing contraction in its Gross Domestic Product (GDP), and has a
relatively low inflation rate. Such types of data are typical of economies that are
in the recession phase of the business cycle. Option A is incorrect because
economies in the expansion phase of the business cycle typically have positive
rates of GDP growth, lower unemployment, and sometimes have higher rates of
inflation. Option B is incorrect because economies at the peak phase of the
business cycle also typically have positive rates of GDP growth (though often
lower than in the expansion phase), lower unemployment, and sometimes higher
rates of inflation. Option C is incorrect because economies in the recovery
phase of the business cycle typically have positive (or at least not so strongly
negative) rates of GDP growth, lower unemployment, and sometimes higher
rates of inflation. Also, it is a snapshot, so one cannot tell whether it is moving
toward the trough or toward recovery.
Competency 021—(Structure and Operation of the U.S. Free Enterprise System): The teacher understands the structure and operation of the U.S. free enterprise system; the role of government, business, consumers and labor in the system; and basic concepts of consumer economics.
40. Which of the following is the main incentive for entrepreneurs to take risks to
start a business?
-
Profits
-
Voluntary exchange
-
Specialization
-
Competition
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option A is correct.
Entrepreneurs take the risks of organizing productive
resources to make goods and services. Profit is an important incentive that leads
entrepreneurs to accept the risks of business failure. Option B is incorrect
because voluntary exchange is the process of willingly trading one valuable
commodity (good, service or resource) for another. Voluntary exchanges are
the foundation of market transactions and what makes competitive markets
efficient, but they are not the main incentive for entrepreneurs to start a
business. Option C is incorrect because specialization occurs when people
concentrate on producing goods or services or performing tasks they are good at,
allowing them to produce more than they can consume. Specialization usually
increases the productivity of workers and leads to increased interdependence
among producers, but it is not the main incentive for entrepreneurs to start a
business. Option D is incorrect because in economic terms, competition refers
to the actions of two or more rivals in pursuit of the same objective. When they
start new companies, entrepreneurs often begin to engage in competition with
others, but in the economic model of entrepreneurial behavior, this is not the
main incentive for starting a new business.
41. Assume that the demand for soft drinks is relatively inelastic. If the
government imposes a per-unit tax on the sale of soft drinks, which of the
following correctly identifies how the tax will affect the quantity demanded in
the market and who will pay the largest portion of the tax?
Quantity Demanded |
Party that Pays Largest Portion Of tax |
A. Will decrease |
Sellers |
B. Will decrease |
Buyers |
C. Will increase |
Buyers |
D. Will increase |
Sellers |
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option B is correct.
Imposing a per-unit tax on soft drinks will shift the supply
curve to the left (or upward) by the amount of per-unit tax, resulting in a higher
price to the consumers, thus decreasing the quantity demanded. Because the
demand curve is relatively inelastic, buyers will be less responsive to the higher
price of soft drinks that results from the tax. As a result, sellers will be able to
pass the greater portion of the tax in the form a higher price on to buyers. Thus
buyers will bear the larger portion of the tax burden. Option A is incorrect.
Because the demand curve is relatively inelastic, buyers will be less responsive to
the higher price of soft drinks that results from the tax. As a result, sellers will be
able to pass the greater portion of the tax in the form a higher price on to
buyers. Thus buyers will bear the larger portion of the tax burden, not sellers.
Option C is incorrect. Imposing a per-unit tax on soft drinks will shift the
supply curve to the left (or upward) by the amount of per-unit tax, resulting in a
higher price to the consumers, thus moving upward along the demand curve and
decreasing the quantity demanded, not increasing the quantity demanded.
Option D is incorrect. Imposing a per-unit tax on soft drinks will lead to a
decrease in the quantity demanded (not increasing the quantity demanded).
Because the demand curve is relatively inelastic, buyers will pay the largest
portion of the tax (not the sellers).
Competency 022—(Science, Technology and Society): The teacher understands major scientific and mathematical discoveries and technological innovations and the societal significance of these discoveries and innovations.
42. President Eisenhower signed the Federal-Aid Highway Act in 1956, which he
promoted as a benefit to national defense. The act also had the benefit of
promoting the national goal of
-
price stability.
-
full employment.
-
economic freedom.
-
economic efficiency.
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option B is correct.
Government spending on infrastructure projects such as
roads increases aggregate demand and encourages firms to hire more workers to
meet the higher demand, a process that can eventually lead to full employment.
President Eisenhower and his advisors hoped to stimulate the economy with this
infusion of government spending. Option A is incorrect because although
government spending on infrastructure increases aggregate demand, it can also
lead to higher prices. Option C is incorrect because the Federal Aid Highway
Act in 1956 increased the size of the government, which may negatively affect
individuals’ economic freedom. Option D is incorrect because economic
efficiency refers to the use of resources to maximize the production of goods and
services. An economic system is said to be economically efficient if no one can be
made better off without making someone else worse off. Although President
Eisenhower and his advisors hoped to see economic benefits by authorizing the
construction of the highway system, they were not seeking economic efficiency in
this sense.
Domain VII—Social Studies Foundations, Skills, Research and Instruction
Competency 023—(Social Studies Foundations and Skills): The teacher understands
social studies terminology and concepts; the philosophical foundations of social
science inquiry; relationships among and between social science disciplines and
other content areas; and skills for resolving conflicts, solving problems and making
decisions in social studies contexts.
43. A geography teacher is most likely to use the term "cultural convergence" when
discussing
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contact and interaction between different cultures.
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restrictions on outside influence on a culture.
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the process by which values are transmitted across generations.
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the beliefs and values that distinguish a group of people.
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option A is correct.
The term "cultural convergence" refers to the idea that the
availability of media such as the Internet, printed text, television and radio tends
to provide groups of people from different regions more access to other cultures.
Such access may lead to the adoption of cultural traits and cultural forms by
different groups and may lead to greater cultural similarities. Option B is
incorrect. If influence on cultures were restricted, the media by which cultural
convergence take place would also be restricted. Option C is incorrect. This
process is known as transmission and takes place when older generations teach
younger generations about a shared culture or set of values. Transmission
typically takes places within one culture, not between two different cultures.
Option D is incorrect. This is simply a definition of the term "culture."
Competency 025—(Social Studies Research): The teacher understands social science and historical research methods, including procedures for formulating research questions and for organizing, analyzing, evaluating and reporting information.
44. A historian studying the impact of the Civil War on American society is most
likely to ask which of the following research questions?
-
How many Union soldiers died at the Battle of Gettysburg?
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How would Northern society have changed if the South had won the war?
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How did the South’s defeat shape the reconstruction of the Union?
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Was Abraham Lincoln a better commander in chief than Jefferson Davis?
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option C is correct
because it states a question that is both potentially
answerable through historical research and that is a subsidiary and significant
aspect of the larger topic mentioned in the question. Option A is incorrect
because although it states a question that is potentially answerable through
historical research, it is a relatively narrow topic and is only indirectly linked to
the larger topic of the war’s impact on society. Option B is incorrect because it
refers to a hypothetical, or counterfactual, situation that cannot be addressed
satisfactorily through historical research. Option D is incorrect because it states
a question that might be answerable through historical research but that does not
directly pertain to the larger topic mentioned in the question.
45. Students benefit from constructing and using population pyramids to
- determine the social hierarchy of ancient civilizations.
- predict the future need for human services in a nation.
- analyze the changing racial and ethnic composition of select nations.
- compare and contrast different forms of government.
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option B is correct.
Because a population pyramid displays the population of a
country by age and gender, it would be possible to predict the future need for
human services. For example, when a population pyramid shows a large number
of young people and a smaller number of older people, it can be predicted that
there will be more need for services like medical care and social security when
that large group of young people comes to retirement age. Option A is
incorrect. Population pyramids do not display information about social
hierarchies. This information can be displayed in a simple chart. Option C is
incorrect. Population pyramids do not include information about race and
ethnicity. This information is typically displayed in pie charts. Option D is
incorrect. Population pyramids do not include information about forms of
government. Comparisons between forms of government are sometimes
displayed in Venn diagrams or simple tables.
46. Which of the following documents is considered a secondary source?
-
The Journal of American History
-
The United States census
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Plato’s Republic
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The Treaty of Versailles
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option A is correct.
The Journal of American History is a scholarly journal, or a
peer-reviewed periodical, that serves as a forum for presentation and scrutiny of
new and existing research. As such, it is considered a secondary source.
Option B is incorrect. The United States census as a historical document is
used as a source to determine information such as the population, ethnic and
racial background, and economic status of people in the United States. This is an
example of a primary source. Option C is incorrect. Plato’s Republic is
considered a primary source. Written in Athens in the fourth century B.C., the
Republic is often used by historians to examine ancient Greek ideas about
politics, justice and ethics. Option D is incorrect. The Treaty of Versailles was
one of the peace treaties signed at the end of World War I. It is considered a
primary source because it documents direct evidence of activities or agreements
between nations at the particular time that it was created.
47. A researcher is examining students’ study habits and their impact on academic
performance. To identify the relationship between time spent studying outside
class and final exam score, a researcher is mostly likely to employ which of the
following research designs?
-
Naturalistic observation
-
Case study
-
Correlational study
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Longitudinal study
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option C is correct.
As part of a systematic study of the research project
described in the question, the most effective and efficient approach would
be to examine the correlation between time spent studying and exam results,
establishing data for each student individually and then aggregating the data.
Option A is incorrect because observation of subjects in their natural
environment, if needed at all, would be more appropriate for the data-collection
phase of the project if the researcher had concerns about the reliability of self-reported data about study time. Option B is incorrect because a case study,
which typically focuses on an individual subject or a small group of subjects,
would not be likely to result in a broad enough sample. Option D is incorrect
because a longitudinal study involves establishing repeated correlations between
the same phenomena over an extended period of time, which is not necessary for
the research project as described in the question.
Competency 026—(Social Studies Instruction and Assessment): The teacher understands the Texas Essential Knowledge and Skills (TEKS) in social studies; knows how to plan and implement effective social studies instruction, including helping students make interdisciplinary connections and develop relevant reading skills; and knows procedures for assessing students’ progress and needs in social studies.
48. Which of the following activities best encourages reflective thinking by students
participating in a mock election in their civics class?
-
Predicting the outcome of the election using polling data
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Writing a journal entry describing the reasons behind their vote
-
Making a campaign poster in support of a candidate
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Researching the outcomes of past presidential elections
- AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
- Option B is correct.
Writing a journal entry describing the reasons behind their
vote would require students to consider their own reasoning for casting their
votes based on the facts and ideas they shared with the candidates they chose.
Option A is incorrect. Predicting the outcome of an upcoming election does not
require students to consider their decisions based on their knowledge and ideas.
Option C is incorrect. Although this activity involves artistic creativity and
requires an understanding of the purpose of campaign posters, it does not
require the deeper reflection involved in keeping a journal. Option D is
incorrect. This activity requires research skills and inferences based on data
from previous elections, but it does not require students to reflect on their own
decisions in voting for a particular candidate.