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Section 4: Sample Selected-Response Questions
Speech 7–12 (129)

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This section presents some sample exam questions for you to review as part of your preparation for the exam. To demonstrate how each competency may be assessed, sample questions are accompanied by the competency that they measure. While studying, you may wish to read the competency before and after you consider each sample question. Please note that the competency statements do not appear on the actual exam.

For each sample exam question, there is a correct answer and a rationale for each answer option. The sample questions are included to illustrate the formats and types of questions you will see on the exam; however, your performance on the sample questions should not be viewed as a predictor of your performance on the actual exam.

Domain I—Communication Processes

Competency 001—The teacher understands the communication process and related theories.

1. Connie is attending a lecture by a well-known speaker. However, Connie is having trouble focusing on the lecture because she keeps thinking about an exam for which she must study. From the perspective of communication theory, which of the following best describes what Connie is experiencing?

  1. Imagination
  2. Noise
  3. Belonging needs
  4. Concentration
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because noise describes anything that interferes with the effective reception of a message by a receiver, including the internal noise that is causing Connie to be distracted. Option A is incorrect because although Connie may be imagining her performance on the upcoming exam, imagination does not describe what is happening in the scenario in terms of communication theory. Option C is incorrect because the scenario does not address Connie’s need to belong and how this might be a barrier to communication. Option D is incorrect because Connie is not concentrating but is suffering from a deficit in concentration brought about by internal noise.

2. Bill has accepted an engagement to speak at a local service organization. He searches the local newspaper's archives for articles about the organization in order to better understand its beliefs and goals. Bill is engaging in which of the following?

  1. Internal preview
  2. Feedback
  3. Peer testimony
  4. Audience analysis
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because Bill is using research to analyze the audience and adapt his message to that audience. Option A is incorrect because an internal preview is part of the structure of a speech. Option B is incorrect because feedback is part of the interaction model of communication, not part of speech construction. Option C is incorrect because the scenario does not describe Bill’s peers or a situation in which they provide evidence.

3. Carlos is listening to Sally explain why she is upset about an exam she has just taken. Carlos wants to provide emotional support for Sally. In which of the following is Carlos engaged?

  1. Empathic listening
  2. Critical listening
  3. Critical analysis
  4. Textual analysis
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Option A is correct because empathic listening is based in part on adopting an appropriate emotional position to support a speaker. Options B, C and D are incorrect because the scenario does not suggest that Carlos is evaluating or analyzing Sally’s explanation.

Competency 002—The teacher understands factors that influence communication choices.

4. Which of the following is an effective nonverbal communication technique that a group leader can use to indicate a desire to share authority within the group?

  1. Sitting at the head of the table
  2. Sitting in the center of a circle
  3. Sitting in a circle with the group
  4. Sitting in front of the group
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because by positioning himself or herself in a circle formed by the group, the group leader demonstrates through nonverbal communication a shared authority with, and mutual respect for, team members. Options A, B and D are incorrect because a leader who sits at the head, in the center, or in front of the group demonstrates to team members a desire to be in control and a need for individual authority.

5. Henry believes that foul language is used only by people who have little or no education. He is surprised that a classmate in his graduate class, Marla, often uses profanity in casual speech. Henry's interpretation of Marla is influenced by Henry's

  1. world view.
  2. self-esteem.
  3. semantic focus.
  4. self-actualization.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because Henry’s system of beliefs, including who might use foul language, is a part of his world view, which is commonly defined as the way someone sees and interprets the world. Option B is incorrect because the situation does not refer to Henry’s assessment of his own value. Option C is incorrect because semantic focus describes how a person understands the use of metaphors in language, not what he or she believes about the use of language. Option D is incorrect because Henry’s interpretation does not relate to any of the elements of Abraham Maslow’s theory of self-actualization.

6. A political candidate is speaking to an organization that represents a specific group within the society. The candidate does not know that a certain phrase has been used by the majority population in a derogatory manner about the group. In the speech the candidate uses the phrase without realizing its offensive nature. In which of the following areas has the candidate failed to be thorough?

  1. Reaction to feedback
  2. Topic selection
  3. Nonverbal communication
  4. Audience analysis
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because the speaker has not sufficiently analyzed the audience to help adapt the message to ensure a positive response. Option A is incorrect because the speaker was able to confirm that the audience interpreted the message incorrectly. Option B is incorrect because a particular phrase was derogatory, not the speaker’s topic selection. Option C is incorrect because the offensive message was a verbal phrase, not part of the speaker’s nonverbal communication.

7. Which of the following aspects of credibility is most directly related to a speaker's expertise in the subject matter of a speech?

  1. Competence
  2. Dynamism
  3. Integrity
  4. Motivation
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Option A is correct because competence refers in large part to the extent of a speaker’s expertise in the topic of a speech. Option B is incorrect because dynamism refers to the energy and enthusiasm a speaker projects during a speech; a speaker does not necessarily need to have subject-matter competence to project a dynamic persona. Option C is incorrect because integrity is an aspect of ethics and morality; it refers to the quality of being honest and of being guided by strong principles. Option D is incorrect because the motivation a speaker has for giving a speech may not necessarily involve his or her expertise in the subject matter; there may be an intrinsic or extrinsic reward for the act of making the speech.

Competency 003—The teacher understands the importance of using accurate and complete information as a basis for critical thinking, reasoning, decision making, effective listening and speaking in interpersonal, group, organizational and public contexts.

8. A student who is searching Internet sources while preparing a speech chooses to use only blogs that support the student's predetermined view of the topic. This approach fails to provide which of the following in the student's research?

  1. Honesty
  2. Objectivity
  3. Quantity
  4. Enthusiasm
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Option B is correct because the student is not taking into account all of the possible points of view that are likely to be discovered in the process of conducting more comprehensive research. Blogs in particular do not adhere to the more objective review standards of academic and professional research. Option A is incorrect because neither the student’s research agenda nor the blog post is necessarily untrue or dishonest. Option C is incorrect because the scenario does not address the number of sources that the student uses or should use; more blogs that support the student’s view will not make up for a lack of objectivity. Option D is incorrect because the scenario does not address the student’s emotional attitude about the research.

9. A student is giving a speech on the Jurassic period and uses a real fossilized bone to illustrate some traits of the dinosaurs that lived at the time. The student is using which of the following types of sources?

  1. Secondary
  2. Indirect
  3. Primary
  4. Preliminary
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Option C is correct because a primary source is an original source, one that was created or written during the time under study, and is not itself a historical account; archaeological artifacts are often used as a primary source material. Options A and B are incorrect because secondary (or indirect) sources interpret primary sources, something a fossilized bone cannot do. Option D is incorrect because preliminary sources are what a student may compile before narrowing a topic, and the student in the scenario has already written the speech.

Competency 004—The teacher understands how to interpret, analyze and produce various types of media messages.

10. When visiting a television station in a large city, the students in a communications class meet an employee who is responsible for the performance of everyone working in the news department. This employee also coordinates all of the technical and nontechnical elements of the newscast. The employee is most likely the

  1. director.
  2. producer.
  3. chief engineer.
  4. on-air talent.
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Option B is correct because a producer is responsible for all elements of a newscast and those working in the news department. Option A is incorrect because a director oversees the technical aspects of a newscast, including angles and number of cameras, but is not responsible for everyone working in the news department. Option C is incorrect because a chief engineer focuses on the maintenance and proper functioning of the equipment involved in television production. Option D is incorrect because on-air talent refers to the people in front of the camera, such as newscasters.

11. The strong-effects view of media in the 1920s and 1930s is also known as

  1. the magic bullet effect.
  2. the barbell effect.
  3. the halo effect.
  4. the straw man effect.
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Option A is correct because the magic bullet effect directly refers to a theory substantiating the strong effects of the media during the referenced time period. Option B is incorrect because the barbell effect refers to a phenomenon in the business world. Option C is incorrect because the halo effect refers to a theory surrounding consumer bias. Option D is incorrect because the straw man effect refers to a specific strategy of argumentation that is often considered a logical fallacy.

12. Beginning in the mid-1990s, news presentations began providing a context in which issues would be perceived according to the stance taken by the media. Such a context is called

  1. invalidation.
  2. streamlining.
  3. schema.
  4. framing.
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Option D is correct because the concept of framing refers to the manner in which the media focuses on specific news items and shapes their coverage of those items accordingly. Option A is incorrect because invalidation refers to how a news outlet discounts a position or a news story within its coverage. Option B is incorrect because streamlining refers to the editing or omission of certain details in order to simplify a topic for broadcast. Option C is incorrect because a schema refers to how an audience perceives a message, which is not the same as the stance taken by the media on a news story or the steps taken by the media to shape a message in a particular way.

Competency 005—The teacher understands ethical standards and major legal issues relevant to various communication contexts.

13. The famous saying about freedom of speech, "You cannot (falsely) shout fire in a crowded theater," paraphrases which of the following?

  1. Oliver Wendell Holmes, Jr., in the unanimous opinion in Schenck v. United States (1919)
  2. Edward J. Hart during the hearings of the House Un-American Activities Committee (HUAC) in 1945
  3. A reporter for the Chicago Tribune while summarizing investigations after the Great Chicago Fire of 1871
  4. The United States Supreme Court, in Gravel v. United States (1972), regarding the leaker of the Pentagon Papers
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Option A is correct because Justice Holmes, writing for the unanimous United States Supreme Court in the case, asserted that "the most stringent protection of free speech would not protect a man falsely shouting fire in a theater and causing a panic. . . . The question in every case is whether the words used are used in such circumstances and are of such a nature as to create a clear and present danger. . . ." Options B, C and D are incorrect because the saying does not originate from these.

Domain II—Speaking and Listening in Different Contexts

Competency 006—The teacher understands oral language, listening and nonverbal communication skills.

14. At the beginning of a speech to an audience of dentists, a speaker smiles and then makes a joke about teeth. Which TWO of the following communication techniques are being used?

  1. Nonverbal communication
  2. Outlining
  3. Alliteration
  4. Audience adaptation
  5. Vocal variety
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Options A and D are correct because the act of smiling is a form of nonverbal communication, and the speaker is adapting to the audience of dentists with the joke about teeth. Option B is incorrect because outlining occurs during the writing process, before the performance takes place. Option C is incorrect because the scenario does not describe the speaker’s repetition of an initial sound in a series of words. Option E is incorrect because vocal variety is achieved by varying the voice pitch, tone, pace and volume while speaking.

15. Which TWO of the following should be stressed when providing instruction about the listening process?

  1. The words "hearing" and "listening" are interchangeable.
  2. Listening is a skill that develops naturally.
  3. Listening to a message means that the message has been understood.
  4. A person's attitude can impact his or her listening.
  5. People can comprehend faster than they can speak.
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Options D and E are correct because people should acknowledge that they filter all messages through their own experiences and that those experiences affect their ability to listen effectively. Listeners can and should use the additional time the process of comprehension grants them to ensure that they achieve as full an understanding as possible of the sender’s message. Option A is incorrect because hearing is a physical process and listening is a mental process. Option B is incorrect because people must work to develop appropriate listening strategies. Option C is incorrect because listening is a mental process whereby listeners must provide feedback through verbal or nonverbal actions to demonstrate that they have understood a message.

16. Acquiring, understanding, and attending and responding to messages from others is an accurate description of

  1. the nonverbal language process.
  2. an interpersonal relationship.
  3. the speech-building process.
  4. the listening process.
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Option D is the correct answer because listening is an interactive meaning-making process that requires all four of the listed behaviors in order to be effective. Option A is incorrect because it does not account for the verbal component in the listed behaviors. Option B is incorrect because the behaviors listed constitute only a small part of an interpersonal relationship and thus are not a fully accurate depiction of one. Option C is incorrect because acquiring messages from an audience is not necessarily part of the speech-building process.

Competency 007—The teacher understands concepts and principles of classical and contemporary rhetoric.

17. A student is writing an informative speech about the process of recycling. Which of the following organizational methods is most appropriate for the student to use?

  1. Topical
  2. Problem-solution
  3. Sequential
  4. Cause-effect
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Option C is correct because a process implies a temporal description, which a sequential organization will provide. Option A is incorrect because topical organization does not imply a particular order; it only discusses different aspects of recycling. Option B is incorrect because problem-solution organization is unique to persuasive speeches. Option D is incorrect because the description of a process only includes a set of steps; it does not argue why an action causes a particular response.

18. When offering a student suggestions on how to clarify the main ideas of a speech, a teacher should encourage the development of strong

  1. delivery.
  2. signposts.
  3. metaphors.
  4. rhetorical questions.
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Option C is correct because speakers use metaphors to clarify the meaning of ideas since metaphors help make abstract concepts more accessible by appealing to the senses. Option A is incorrect because although delivery may support the emphasis of a main idea, it cannot clarify a main idea. Option B is incorrect because signposts signal transitions between main ideas instead of clarifying them. Option D is incorrect because rhetorical questions usually serve as introductions or transitions instead of enhancing the clarity of main ideas.

19. Which of the following purpose statements is the most appropriate for a speech about a chess team's winning of the state championship?

  1. Informing the audience about the team's success in order to inspire pride in the team's achievements
  2. Informing the community members who are in the audience about chess as a worthwhile hobby
  3. Informing the audience about the successful efforts of the chess team's coach
  4. Informing the audience that the speaker is a member of the winning chess team
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because the goal of inspiring the audience provides a specific purpose and hoped-for outcome for the speech. Option B is incorrect because focusing on chess as a worthwhile hobby excludes the winning of a state championship from the speech’s context. Options C and D are incorrect because they focus on specific elements of a team’s success rather than on the team itself.

20. A speaker begins a speech by saying, "Today, I'm going to talk to you about how to weave a rug." The statement is an illustration of which of the following?

  1. The speaker's conclusion
  2. A preview of the speech
  3. The body of the speech
  4. An introduction to the topic of the speech
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Option D is correct because the speaker is indicating what the topic or general subject matter of the speech will be. Option A is incorrect because the speaker has not revealed any specific ideas, just the topic of the speech. Option B is incorrect because the speaker is not outlining the approach that will be taken regarding the subject matter of the speech. Option C is incorrect because the speaker is not presenting in detail the principal contents of the speech, which would most likely include the steps that need to be taken in order to weave a rug.

Competency 008—The teacher understands concepts and principles of argumentation and debate.

21. A student makes a persuasive claim in a debate round by saying that the judge's ballot "has the power to influence change in a decaying world." The student is making an appeal to which of the following?

  1. Logos
  2. Ethos
  3. Pathos
  4. Bathos
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Option C is correct because pathos is an emotional appeal; in this case, the student is using emotion-laden language—"a decaying world"—in an attempt to arouse the judge's emotions and affect his or her decision. Option A is incorrect because the argument does not contain inartistic proofs (e.g., facts, examples, statistics) to appeal to the judge’s sense of logic. Option B is incorrect because neither the scenario nor the debater’s words suggest that the credibility, expertise, or authority of the debater is at stake. Option D is incorrect because the student is not moving from a serious argument to a trivial one.

22. In which of the following styles of formal debate does the negative team have back-to-back speeches?

  1. Cross-examination
  2. Lincoln-Douglas
  3. Public forum
  4. Congressional
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Option A is correct because in a cross-examination debate, the second negative constructive speech is followed by the first negative rebuttal speech. Option B is incorrect because a Lincoln-Douglas debate consists of a single person on each side of the resolution, and each debater takes turns. Option C is incorrect because in a public forum debate, the pro and con sides take turns throughout the round. Option D is incorrect because after the authorship speech, a congressional debate alternates speeches in support of and in negation of the proposition.

23. A member of an audience recalling the speaker's final argument rather than the speaker's previous arguments is an example of which of the following?

  1. Primacy effect
  2. Halo effect
  3. Recency effect
  4. Motivated sequence
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Option C is correct because the recency effect, a type of serial position effect, describes a situation in which items at the end of a list of information, such as the arguments presented in a speech, are more likely to be recalled than those in the middle. Option A is incorrect because although the primacy effect is also a kind of serial position effect, it describes the same situation with respect to the beginning, not the end, of a list. Option B is incorrect because a halo effect describes a cognitive bias in which an observer has a positive disposition toward something based on liking one aspect of it. Option D is incorrect because motivated sequence describes a technique for organizing persuasive speeches but does not concern the serial position effect described.

Competency 009—The teacher understands concepts and principles of oral interpretation.

24. Which of the following is a true statement describing oral interpreters?

  1. They perform extemporaneously.
  2. They use limited movement.
  3. They use the same techniques that actors do.
  4. They play only one role in each performance.
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Option B is correct because oral interpreters use symbolic movements to communicate physical actions that would be more elaborate in a theater performance. Option A is incorrect because interpreters use specific texts that they have prepared instead of creating scenes without preparation. Option C is incorrect because interpreters combine elements of acting and public speaking. Option D is incorrect because interpreters may play a number of different characters in the same performance according to the demands of the text.

25. The major differences between staged drama and group oral interpretation include which THREE of the following?

  1. Performers in a group oral interpretation choose literary works and bring them to life, while actors in a staged drama use a playwright's dramatic script.
  2. Performers in a group oral interpretation make eye contact with each other, while actors in a staged drama focus slightly above and beyond the audience.
  3. Performers in a group oral interpretation are more likely than actors in a staged drama to use a lectern.
  4. Performers in a group oral interpretation represent characters, while actors in a staged drama act out characters.
  5. Performers in a group oral interpretation may participate in choral speaking, while actors may not.
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Options A, C and D are correct because oral interpretation is based on limited movement with few or no costumes or hand props; the interpretation can bring many different forms of literature to life and can be read from a lectern. However, stage actors become their characters based on a playwright’s dramatic script and do not generally use a lectern. Option B is incorrect because nothing theoretically keeps either stage actors or oral interpreters from focusing on each other or on audience members (i.e., both groups can use all of the various kinds of focus). Option E is incorrect because both actors and group oral interpreters may participate in choral speaking according to a playwright’s stage directions or a director’s interpretation of the text.

Competency 010—The teacher understands interpersonal communication skills as they are applied in a variety of contexts.

26. A firefighter visits schools regularly to talk about fire safety. Although the messages are always the same, the firefighter selects different words, gestures, and examples to suit the grade level of the students hearing the presentation. The firefighter's selection process is called

  1. encoding.
  2. decoding.
  3. receiving.
  4. interfering.
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Option A is correct because during encoding, a person may choose from a wide variety of verbal, paraverbal, and nonverbal symbols to create a message. Option B is incorrect because decoding occurs when a person receives a message; the firefighter in the scenario is sending a message. Option C is incorrect because the firefighter is encoding and sending a message, not receiving a message. Option D is incorrect because the firefighter is attempting to enhance communication, and interference implies a decrease in communication.

Competency 011—The teacher understands group and organizational dynamics and skills for communicating in groups and organizations.

27. Which of the following best describes a group that is organized around a hobby or interest?

  1. Task group
  2. Social group
  3. Committee
  4. Delegation
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Option B is correct because social groups are often formed through a sense of unity derived from the mutual interests of their members. Options A and C are incorrect because task groups and committees are formed — often by a leader — to achieve an organizational goal. Option D is incorrect because a delegation’s primary goal is to reach out to another person or group.

28. A leader is most likely to assign someone to play the role of devil's advocate within a group to avoid which of the following?

  1. Conflict
  2. Group tension
  3. Group cohesion
  4. Groupthink
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Option D is correct because groupthink is caused by members underestimating the group’s task and reaching consensus without an appropriate amount of discussion. A devil’s advocate pushes the group to address issues that may need to be resolved but that have not been raised or that have not been discussed thoroughly enough from a variety of perspectives. Option A is incorrect because a devil’s advocate deliberately causes conflict in a group. Option B is incorrect because a devil’s advocate may increase tension in a group. Option C is incorrect because group cohesion is a positive social process that must occur before groupthink; a devil’s advocate’s goal is not to decrease group cohesion but rather to question the group’s final decisions.

Domain III—Speech Education

Competency 012—The teacher understands instruction that is appropriate for all students and reflects the Texas Essential Knowledge and Skills (TEKS) in speech.

29. When evaluating a student's oral presentation, a teacher should do which of the following?

  1. Point out the student's weaknesses that tend to recur over time
  2. Focus only on the areas of the presentation that need improvement
  3. Focus only on the positive aspects of the presentation
  4. Point out the student's strengths and the areas that need improvement
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Option D is correct because an evaluation as an educational tool should be balanced, incorporating both positive and negative comments. Option A is incorrect because focusing only on recurring weaknesses does not provide a balanced assessment. Option B is incorrect because focusing only on weaknesses may decrease the student’s self-esteem and does not advance the goal of providing balanced criticism. Option C is incorrect because focusing only on student strengths gives the student a false sense of accomplishment and skews the student’s perception of the performance.

30. A teacher's lesson plan for a class session is to have a discussion of the First Amendment to the United States Constitution and what the amendment means to United States citizens today. Which of the following steps is most likely to inhibit a successful discussion?

  1. Planning ahead by reviewing content already covered and goals to be reached during the discussion
  2. Encouraging students to respond to one another's comments
  3. Allowing the entire class to discuss the issue before providing instruction on effective discussion techniques
  4. Asking open-ended questions that allow students to apply concepts learned to various situations
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Option C is correct because training in effective and respectful discussion practices should always precede a discussion of a controversial subject like the one described here; without such practices and techniques, the discussion will likely be ineffective and counterproductive. Option A is incorrect because planning ahead and providing goals help students succeed. Options B and D are incorrect because effective group discussions thrive on student responses to questions, open-ended questions, and the application of learned concepts to various situations.

Competency 013—The teacher understands methods for designing and implementing speech instruction related to communication processes and choices, ethics, mass media and the evaluation and use of information.

31. Which of the following is the best way for a teacher to help reduce the communication apprehension of students who are assigned an extemporaneous speech?

  1. Have students practice their speeches in front of small groups before the actual presentations
  2. Have students write out their entire speeches to read from while speaking
  3. Have students memorize their speeches verbatim
  4. Have students watch their classmates' speeches to identify moments of discomfort
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Option A is correct because practicing before an audience assists students in familiarizing themselves with an actual speaking situation and thus decreases performance anxiety. Option B is incorrect because extemporaneous speeches are based on outlines, so reading an entire speech does not replicate the performance situation. Option C is incorrect because extemporaneous speeches are based on outlines instead of memorization, so a memorized speech would not replicate the performance situation. Option D is incorrect because audience members cannot accurately identify times when speakers are uncomfortable, and this information would not serve to decrease a student’s own anxiety.

32. Of the following, the most effective way to teach students to understand the impact that the media has on society is to have students

  1. watch the news and analyze the stories that are reported.
  2. analyze presidential popularity polls as presented on national news broadcasts.
  3. observe audience responses to the ways the conservative media and liberal media cover the same story.
  4. discuss the different types of programs currently being broadcast on television, including news, scripted programming, and reality shows.
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Option C is correct because the focus on audience responses will illuminate the media’s impact on society, especially within the context of conservative versus liberal media coverage. Option A is incorrect because merely watching the news and analyzing reported stories will not reveal the media’s impact on society. Option B is incorrect because presidential popularity polls are influenced by sources other than the media. Option D is incorrect because broadcast programming decisions are determined by viewership and popularity rather than by the impact of the media on society.

Competency 014—The teacher understands methods for designing and implementing speech instruction related to information and oral interpretation.

33. Which of the following theories of persuasion proposes that individuals seek balance in their lives, become uncomfortable when things are out of balance, and seek to restore balance?

  1. Elaboration-likelihood model
  2. Cognitive dissonance theory
  3. Narrative paradigm
  4. Social judgment theory
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Option B is correct because cognitive dissonance theory outlines ways of creating emotional tension and then giving audience members strategies to decrease that tension. Option A is incorrect because the elaboration-likelihood model emphasizes changes in attitudes toward objects or people, not seeking balance. Option C is incorrect because the narrative paradigm views persuasion through a descriptive lens based on storytelling, not through the restoration of balance. Option D is incorrect because social judgment theory describes persuasion as depending on the receiver’s preexisting attitudes rather than his or her desire to restore balance.

34. A class listens to recordings of speeches by three famous people. The students determine the strengths and weaknesses of the speeches. Which of the following types of listening are the students engaged in?

  1. Listening for enjoyment
  2. Empathetic listening
  3. Reflective listening
  4. Critical listening
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Option D is correct because critical listening involves the analysis of arguments. Option A is incorrect because listening for enjoyment entails listening that supports or changes emotions. Option B is incorrect because the student listeners are not necessarily expected to become emotionally affected by the speakers’ messages. Option C is incorrect because the student listeners are not instructed to summarize the arguments and repeat them to the speakers.

Competency 015—The teacher understands methods for designing and implementing speech instruction related to rhetoric and debate.

35. When a speech teacher is instructing students in the effective use of persuasive skills and strategies, it is most appropriate to have students do which of the following?

  1. Use only pathos in formal argumentation
  2. Focus on logos and ethos alone in formal argumentation
  3. Use logos, pathos, and ethos in every formal and informal argument
  4. Use logos, pathos, and ethos only when appropriate in formal and informal arguments
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Option D is correct because a speaker should choose the best available means to form an argument regardless of its formality. Option A is incorrect because any argument may use pathos, not just a formal argument; also, using only pathos may not be appropriate when other means are available and suitable. Option B is incorrect because pathos may also be important in formal argument. Option C is incorrect because speakers should not simply use all three persuasive modes uncritically.

36. Which of the following should a speech teacher tell students to look for first when they are analyzing a proposition of value to construct a case?

  1. Ideas for a plan
  2. Values and criteria
  3. Descriptive term and evaluative term
  4. Arguments on each side
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Option C is correct because all research extends from the understanding, analysis, and definition of descriptive terms and objects of evaluation in the proposition. Option A is incorrect because value debate does not advocate a plan; policy debate advocates a plan. Option B is incorrect because the choice of values and criteria extends from a discussion of terms in the resolution. Option D is incorrect because arguments on each side are circumscribed by the discussion of terms in the resolution.

37. Which of the following is the most appropriate advice for a teacher to give students when discussing ethical guidelines for debate research and the use of evidence during a debate round?

  1. Have complete source information ready for the judge and opponents for any evidence they present in the round
  2. Read aloud complete source information for each piece of evidence they present in the round
  3. Read aloud full source information only for evidence they present in the affirmative case
  4. Present only those parts of a piece of evidence that are favorable to their side and to leave out words that hurt their argument
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Option A is correct because debaters are expected to be able to provide all information required, including full MLA or APA citations as well as the qualifications of the author, for all evidence they introduce in a debate. Option B is incorrect because debaters are expected to deliver orally only the author’s last name, source, and year of publication when they present evidence in a round. Option C is incorrect because in all debate events, debaters are expected to deliver source information orally. Option D is incorrect because if a meaningful piece of evidence is left out, it does not constitute evidence.

38. In a debate round, the most widely endorsed strategy is to flow, or take notes, during which of the following speeches?

  1. Rebuttals only
  2. Constructives only
  3. Constructives and rebuttals
  4. The other team’s speeches only
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because all topics, issues, and arguments must be flowed from the first part of the debate round and from the second part of the debate round, when it is vitally important that no new arguments are brought up. Option A is incorrect because if debaters do not begin taking flow until the rebuttals, it is more likely for them to allow opponents’ arguments to be dropped. Option B is incorrect because while it is important to begin flow during the constructive speeches, flow needs to continue throughout the debate. Option D is incorrect because failure to flow their own arguments can result in having debaters drop some quality arguments.

Competency 016—The teacher understands methods for designing and implementing speech instruction related to interpersonal and group communication.

39. In a one-on-one conversation, a teacher gives a student a set of directions to follow for an assignment. Which of the following is the most appropriate way for the student to respond to the teacher's directions?

  1. Paraphrasing the directions
  2. Listening for further directions
  3. Focusing solely on the minor details
  4. Refraining from asking questions
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because paraphrasing is a particularly important and appropriate response to show that the receiver understood the message. Option B is incorrect because listening for further directions does not clarify the student’s understanding of the teacher’s message. Option C is incorrect because focusing solely on the minor details does not clarify the student’s understanding of the directions and may not enable the student to understand the larger context of the directions. Option D is incorrect because if the student does not ask any questions, he or she may misunderstand the directions.

40. A parent wants to address the school board on an issue involving math tutorials and have the board discuss the matter. The school board follows parliamentary procedure. Which of the following should the parent do to ensure that the school board will address his or her concerns?

  1. Contact the board secretary at least three days before the meeting and ask to have the issue put on the agenda
  2. Attend the meeting and speak about the issue during the open-discussion period
  3. Wait for the new-business portion of the agenda to be announced and rise to speak about the issue
  4. Contact a school board member directly and ask for time to speak about the issue at the meeting
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because an item must be on the agenda in order to be discussed by the school board. Option B is incorrect because board members cannot discuss an item during the open-discussion part of the meeting. Option C is incorrect because members of the audience (visitors) who are not on the agenda may not speak during the regular part of the meeting. Option D is incorrect because individual board members cannot set the agenda without taking due process steps, such as contacting the secretary in advance to request a topic’s inclusion on the agenda.
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