Preparation Manual

Domain I—Social Studies Content

Competency 001—(History): The teacher understands and applies knowledge of significant historical events and developments, multiple historical interpretations and ideas and relationships between the past, the present and the future, as defined by the Texas Essential Knowledge and Skills (TEKS).

1. Which of the following was an effect of the Supreme Court decision in Dred Scott v. Sandford?

1. The decision increased the number of congressional representatives to include the Wisconsin territory.
2. The decision required the United States government to regulate the interstate travel of enslaved people.
3. The decision preserved the balance of representative power between free states and slave states.
4. The decision denied citizenship status to all African Americans, whether free or enslaved.

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Option D is correct because the court ruled in the Dred Scott case that African Americans were not citizens. The decision was overturned after the Civil War by passage of the Fourteenth Amendment, which granted citizenship to all people born in the United States. Option A is incorrect because representation in newly acquired territories is decided by an act of Congress and not the Supreme Court. Option B is incorrect because although the facts of the case involved Dred Scott’s travel to another state, federal regulation of interstate travel by enslaved people was not an issue before the court. Option C is incorrect because acts of Congress such as the Missouri Compromise were the only mechanism to preserve the balance of power between slave and free states.

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2. Which of the following best describes the primary claim of the Monroe Doctrine?

1. It declared that the United States had the right to defend the Western Hemisphere from European interference.
2. It warned United States leaders against participating in entangling foreign alliances.
3. It argued that acquiring Asian colonies was an effective means of opening new markets for American goods.
4. It encouraged the mass movement of American Indians off of their land and onto Indian reservations.

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Option A is correct because the proclamation issued by President James Monroe in 1823 stated that it was in the interest of the United States to ensure that the newly independent states in the Americas maintain their independence and that European states engage in no further colonization efforts in the Americas. Option B is incorrect because it states the central theme of President George Washington’s farewell address. Option C is incorrect because the Open Door policy that was developed to open Asian markets to American goods was not established until the late nineteenth century. Option D is incorrect because it describes the Indian removal policies developed by President Andrew Jackson.

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3. In which of the following ways did the British government respond to increasing protests of British colonial policy during the early 1770s?

1. It forced sailors from New England to serve in the Royal Navy.
2. It sent troops to occupy cities in New England and enforce laws.
3. It allowed colonists to vote on representatives in Parliament.
4. It encouraged the mass movement of American Indians off of their land and onto Indian reservations.

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Option B is correct because the colonial resistance to British taxes led to the British government sending troops to the colonies to enforce laws. Option A is incorrect because the impressment of sailors from New England occurred after the American Revolution and contributed to the start of the War of 1812. Option C is incorrect because the lack of representation in Parliament was a contributing factor to the American Revolution. Option D is incorrect because cotton was continually imported from the southern American colonies since it was a vital resource for textile manufacturing in Great Britain.

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4. The Connecticut Compromise of 1787, also known as the Great Compromise, established which of the following?

1. The practice of counting only three-fifths of a state’s enslaved people in apportioning representation and taxation
2. The separation of the federal government into the three branches: the executive, the legislative, and the judicial
3. The congressional apportionment to each state for two senators and a number of House representatives based on state population
4. The addition of the Bill of Rights to the United States Constitution to protect individual liberties and limit the power of the government

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Option C is correct because the Constitutional Convention of 1787 enabled the agreement among representatives of small and large states. Option A is incorrect because the agreement between northern states and southern states is known as the Three-Fifths Compromise. Option B is incorrect because the separation of powers is defined in the United States Constitution. Option D is incorrect because the Bill of Rights was not ratified during the 1787 Constitutional Convention.

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5. Which of the following resulted from the passage of the Law of April 6, 1830, by the government of Mexico?

1. Mexico gave up its claim to the Anahuac region and other Aztec lands near the Mexico Basin.
2. Mexican law prohibited slavery in Texas and closed the borders to United States immigration.
3. Stephen F. Austin brought 300 families to Texas and established the Austin colony.
4. The Fredonian Rebellion began in an effort to secede Texas from Mexico.

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Option B is correct because Mexican Army General José Manuel Rafael Simeón de Mier y Terán issued a report for the Texas Boundary Commission arguing that resistance to United States expansion would require more Mexican and European settlement in Texas. His recommendations were enacted in the Law of April 6, 1830, which prohibited slavery in Texas and closed the borders to legal United States immigration. Option A is incorrect because the Mexican government never relinquished control of territories near the Mexico Basin. Option C is incorrect because the Austin Colony was established before 1830. Option D is incorrect because the Fredonian Rebellion occurred before 1830.

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6. Which of the following best describes the opposition in the United States to the admission of Texas to the Union?

1. Southern planters believed that Texas would contribute little to the national economy.
2. Southern politicians worried that Texas would support the Republican Party.
3. Northern economists believed that Texas banks were responsible for economic depressions.
4. Northern politicians did not want to upset the balance between free states and slave states in the Union.

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Option D is correct because Northern politicians (such as former president Martin Van Buren) believed that the admission of Texas to the Union as a slave state posed a threat to the balance between slave states and free states established by the Missouri Compromise of 1820. Option A is incorrect because Southern planters saw the admission of Texas to the Union as an opportunity to expand cotton production and increase profits due to the low cost of land in the region. Option B is incorrect because settlers in Texas were more likely to support the Democratic Party, and the Republican Party was not founded until the 1850s. Option C is incorrect because banks within the United States, not Texas, were primarily responsible for problematic bank speculation related to the increase in interest rates and the relaxation of lending standards.

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7. Which of the following was an achievement of the United States government under the Articles of Confederation?

1. Creating a strong national military force
2. Abolishing United States participation in the Atlantic slave trade
3. Establishing a process for the admission of new states and territories
4. Enforcing the collection of taxes to pay off Revolutionary War debts

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Option C is correct. The Articles of Confederation, drafted in 1776–1777, was written partially to legitimize the new government of the United States. Under the Articles of Confederation, the United States government established protocols for the admission of new states and a precedent for westward expansion. Option A is incorrect because the Articles of Confederation did not provide the national government enough power to demand troops from individual states. Option B is incorrect because the Atlantic slave trade was not abolished until after the United States Constitution was ratified. Option D is incorrect because the national government was unable to compel individual states to provide money for the payment of debts.

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8. For which of the following reasons did Southern plantation owners oppose the Missouri Compromise (1820) ?

1. It prevented the expansion of slavery into Northern territories.
2. It allowed residents of new territories to vote on whether to allow slavery.
3. It introduced stronger legislation for pursuing fugitive slaves.
4. It outlawed the practice of slavery in Missouri.

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Option A is correct. The Missouri Compromise established that the use of slave labor could not take place in territories established in the Louisiana Territory north of the parallel 36°30′ north. Option B is incorrect because the practice of determining the legality of slavery through popular sovereignty was a key component of the Kansas-Nebraska Act (1854). Option C is incorrect because stronger legislation expanding law enforcement responsibilities in pursuing fugitive slaves was introduced as part of the Compromise of 1850. Option D is incorrect because the Missouri Compromise allowed slavery to continue in Missouri.

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Competency 002—(Geography): The teacher understands and applies knowledge of geographic relationships involving people, places and environments in Texas, the United States and the world, as defined by the Texas Essential Knowledge and Skills (TEKS).

9. Which of the following tectonic plate movements occurred to form the Rocky Mountains?

1. Drifting hot spot
2. Convergent subduction
3. Divergent spreading
4. Transform faulting

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Option B is correct because the formation of the Rocky Mountains is the result of convergence between the North American Plate and the Farallon Plate. The Farallon Plate has been completely subducted underneath the North American continent, resulting in the uplift of the Rocky Mountains. Option A is incorrect because a hot spot is a shallow or fractured portion of the Earth’s crust where volcanic activity is often seen. Option C is incorrect because divergent spreading occurs at plate boundaries that are moving apart from one another, resulting in small parallel ridges along the fault zone. Option D is incorrect because transform faulting occurs at plate boundaries where, as a result of tectonic pressure, there is a lateral shift that results in small angular ridges.

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10. Which of the following is a correct statement about how settlement patterns in Texas have been affected by the state’s geography?

1. The population of southern Texas is in decline due to a drop in average temperature.
2. The western region of Texas is the least populated because of its dry climate and rocky terrain.
3. The highest population concentrations are in the Panhandle, where cities have grown along rivers.
4. The population of northeastern Texas has been limited by its isolation and mountainous terrain.

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Option B is correct because the western region of Texas is the driest and least populous region in Texas. Option A is incorrect because the population in southern Texas is on the rise. Option C is incorrect because the highest concentration of people in Texas is not in the Panhandle. Option D is incorrect because despite some hills, there are no mountainous barriers in northeastern Texas.

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11. The Dust Bowl of the 1930s occurred in which geographic region of the United States?

1. The Great Plains
2. The Pacific Northwest
3. New England
4. The Southeast

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Option A is correct. In the 1930s the Dust Bowl, caused by a combination of drought and poor farming practices, developed in the Great Plains region of the United States. Parts of Oklahoma, Kansas, Texas, and Colorado were the most strongly affected. Options B, C and D are incorrect because the Dust Bowl did not occur in these regions.

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12. Which of the following is the geographic term for an area of relatively flat or level terrain at a high elevation?

1. Summit
2. Plateau
3. Foothill
4. Watershed

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Option B is correct because a plateau is an area of highland that has relatively flat or level terrain. Option A is incorrect because a summit is a mountain’s highest point of elevation, and it may not necessarily consist of level terrain. Option C is incorrect because foothills are found at the base of mountains. Option D is incorrect because a watershed is the drainage basin of a river or stream.

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The image displays the state of Texas labelled with four numbered regions. Region number one begins on the furthest right side of Texas, and extends from the upper right side of the state, down along the right side, and encompasses the bottom-most point of Texas. Region number two is centered in the upper middle area of the state and extends down to approximately the center-most point of the state. Region number three begins in the furthest northern point of Texas and extends down along the left side of region two until it ends below region two in the approximate center of Texas. Region number four encompasses the furthest Western region of Texas.

13. Which of the regions labeled on the above map is characterized by physical features ranging from rolling hills with pines and hardwood trees to alluvial soils that support vast agricultural output?

1. Region 1
2. Region 2
3. Region 3
4. Region 4

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Option A is correct because Region 1 is the Gulf Coastal Plains region and is characterized by the woodland areas of East Texas, the coastal plains and the alluvial soils that support the agriculture of the Rio Grande Valley. Option B is incorrect because Region 2 is the Great Plains region and is characterized by escarpments, grasslands, and cattle ranching. Option C is incorrect because Region 3 is the North Central Plains region that is characterized by a lack of trees and prairie land. Option D is incorrect because Region 4 is the Mountains and Basins region and is characterized by scrub brush vegetation, mountains, and a lack of trees.

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14. Which TWO of the following demographic indicators are more likely to characterize less developed countries in comparison to more developed countries?

1. Higher population growth rates
2. Higher average life expectancies
3. Higher infant mortality rates
4. Higher college graduation rates

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Options A and C are correct. Less developed countries commonly experience high population growth because they often have higher total fertility rates and younger populations than more developed countries. Infant mortality rates in less developed countries are often high due to limited access to health care. Options B and D are incorrect because people in more developed countries often have better access to health care, higher standards of living, and better access to public educational institutions, which in part, allow for higher average life expectancies and higher college graduation rates.

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Competency 003—(Economics): The teacher understands and applies knowledge of economic systems and how people organize economic systems to produce, distribute and consume goods and services, as defined by the Texas Essential Knowledge and Skills (TEKS).

15. Which of the following is a factor of production?

1. State banks
2. Consumers
3. Entrepreneurs
4. Computers

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Option C is correct because factors of production can be understood as the resources of production, which are required to create a commodity. Entrepreneurs are one of the basic factors of production. Other factors of production include land, labor, and capital. Option A is incorrect because state banks serve as a means for both consumers and producers to access capital for various purposes. Option B is incorrect because consumers do not participate in the production of goods. Option D is incorrect because computers are a tool with which production is regulated, accounted for, and made more efficient, but are not always necessary in the production process.

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16. The North American Free Trade Agreement (1994) did most to stimulate which of the following in Texas?

1. Automobile production
2. Trucking and distribution
3. Oil refining
4. Textile manufacturing

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Option B is correct. The North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) lowered trade barriers between Mexico, the United States, and Canada. The lowering of trade barriers led to increases in Mexican manufacturing through lower labor costs and a subsequent increase in trucking, warehousing, and distribution in Texas, through which many of the goods produced in the new Mexican facilities are transported. Option A is incorrect because NAFTA resulted in an increase in automobile manufacturing in Mexico rather than in Texas. Option C is incorrect because NAFTA did not have a significant direct effect on the oil refining business in Texas. Option D is incorrect because NAFTA did not stimulate the growth of low-wage industries such as textile manufacturing in Texas.

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17. Which of the following best represents the potential opportunity cost of local officials cutting their town’s education budget to increase spending for local roads?

1. Better transportation systems
2. Fewer high school graduates
3. Lower local taxes
4. Lower class sizes

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Option D is correct because the decision to increase spending on roads by cutting education spending would likely result in officials losing the opportunity to use those resources to reduce class sizes. Option A is incorrect because an improved transportation system would not be a lost opportunity under this scenario. Option B is incorrect because reduced education spending may lower the overall quality of education but not necessarily impact graduation rates. Option C is incorrect because the scenario only describes a shift in city resources, not a lowering of revenue.

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18. Which of the following best describes the role of businesses in a free enterprise system?

1. They adhere to government-mandated prices of goods and services.
2. They regulate consumer demand for goods and services.
3. They produce goods and services as they see fit to maximize profits.
4. They determine economic policies for international and domestic trade.

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Option C is correct because in a free enterprise system, businesses seek to provide goods and services to consumers at a price determined by the free market. Businesses seek to control the cost of production and price of goods or services provided to generate the maximum possible profits. Option A is incorrect because the government does not set the price of goods or services in a free enterprise system. Option B is incorrect because businesses control the supply of goods but not the demand of those goods. Option D is incorrect because government agencies are responsible for determining economic policies.

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19. In 1793, Eli Whitney invented the cotton gin, which was a machine that extracted the sticky seeds from short-staple cotton and greatly increased the amount of harvested cotton that could be produced in a day. Which of the following reflects another effect of the cotton gin?

1. The demand for slaves decreased.
2. The price of slaves decreased.
3. The use of slave labor increased.
4. The freeing of slaves increased.

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Option C is correct because the invention of the cotton gin resulted in greater demand for cotton to be grown in the southern United States. As a result, the demand for labor on cotton farms increased the demand for slaves to plant, tend, harvest, and transport cotton to then be processed by ginning devices. Option A is incorrect because the demand for labor increased. Option B is incorrect because as demand for slaves increased, so did prices for their purchase. Option D is incorrect because of the high demand for labor, slave owners were less likely to free slaves.

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20. Which of the following policy actions will most contribute to economic growth?

1. Eliminating health insurance and training for workers
2. Decreasing income taxes on households and businesses
3. Decreasing funding for public education
4. Increasing government regulation of businesses

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Option B is correct. Decreasing income taxes increases income, savings, and investment for households and businesses, which will contribute to economic growth. Option A is incorrect because ensuring the health and improving the training of workers will most likely increase production and the quality of goods. Eliminating these services will not contribute to economic growth. Option C is incorrect because decreasing funding for public education may contribute to a less educated workforce, which could negatively affect economic growth. Option D is incorrect because increasing business regulation may stifle business expansion and reduce output, limiting economic growth.

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Competency 004—(Government and Citizenship): The teacher understands and applies knowledge of government, democracy and citizenship, including ways in which individuals and groups achieve their goals through political systems, as defined by the Texas Essential Knowledge and Skills (TEKS).

21. The system of government in the United States is most closely related to that of which of the following classical civilizations?

1. The Han dynasty
2. The Aztec Empire
3. Athens
4. Egypt

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Option C is correct because even though Athenian government was a direct democracy, the representative democratic functions of the United States federal government are most closely related to the system of government developed and used by the ancient Greek city-state of Athens. Option A is incorrect because the Chinese Han dynasty was ruled by an emperor and had no democratic influences on the government of the United States. Options B and D are incorrect because while these civilizations made important contributions to the development of human societies, they did not directly influence the development of government of the United States.

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22. Which of the following represents the largest source of funding for Texas public schools?

1. Local property taxes
2. Local bonds
3. Federal grants
4. Lottery proceeds

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Option A is correct because local property taxes account for almost 50 percent of all public school funding in Texas. Option B is incorrect because local bonds are generally used to raise funds for public projects such as airports and ports. Option C is incorrect because federal funding accounts for less than 25 percent of public school funding in Texas. Option D is incorrect because lottery proceeds in Texas go toward funding education, but they account for a small percentage of all public school funding.

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23. In which of the following ways did the Magna Carta influence the subsequent development of governmental power in England and North America?

1. It placed limitations on the executive branch of government.
2. It mandated the separation of government among three distinct branches.
3. It expanded the power of the executive branch of government.
4. It limited religious practices not sponsored by the government.

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Option A is correct because the Magna Carta required King John of England to proclaim that his power was not absolute and that English nobles had certain civil liberties that he could not violate; that is, he could not deprive them of life, liberty, or property without due process of law. The restrictions on governmental power and guarantee of civil liberties provided a basis for the United States Constitution and later governmental reforms in England. Option B is incorrect because the Magna Carta did not create an independent judiciary. Option C is incorrect because the Magna Carta limited the power of the executive branch. Option D is incorrect because the Magna Carta made the church free from interference from the king.

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24. The United States electoral college is often criticized by voters for which of the following reasons?

1. It encourages the formation of radical political parties.
2. It normally favors the incumbent candidate.
3. It is influenced by money generated by political parties.
4. It gives more political power to heavily populated states.

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Option D is correct because the number of electors assigned to a state is equal to the number of representatives that state has in Congress. Since the number of representatives in the House of Representatives is proportionate to a state’s population, states with large populations will have more representation in the electoral college than states with smaller populations. Options A and C are incorrect because political parties do not directly influence the function of the electoral college. Option B is incorrect because the electoral college is not designed to favor one political candidate over another.

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25. Which of the following is the earliest example of a representative assembly in the American colonies?

1. The Pennsylvania Provincial Assembly
2. The First Continental Congress
3. The Virginia House of Burgesses
4. The Georgia Board of Trustees

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Option C is correct because the Virginia House of Burgesses, which first convened in 1619, was a legislative assembly created to make conditions in the Virginia colony more agreeable for its inhabitants and to encourage further immigration to the colony. Option A is incorrect because the Pennsylvania Provincial Assembly was not created until 1682. Option B is incorrect because although it was a representative assembly, the First Continental Congress took place in 1774. Option D is incorrect because the Georgia Board of Trustees was a group of English settlers that obtained a royal charter to migrate debtors to the colony of Georgia in 1731.

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26. Which of the following is a constitutional principle intended to prevent the abuse of power by one of the branches of United States government?

1. Sovereignty
2. Federalism
3. Nullification
4. Checks and balances

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Option D is correct because the system of checks and balances put in place by the United States Constitution is meant to prevent any one of the three branches of the federal government from abusing its power or from becoming more powerful than the other branches. Option A is incorrect because the principle of sovereignty refers to the full right and power of a state or body of government to govern itself without outside interference and does not correctly describe the interconnection between the branches of the United States federal government. Option B is incorrect because although the United States government is a federal government, this only refers to the division of sovereignty between the central government and the individual states and does not refer specifically to the branches of government. Option C is incorrect because the concept of nullification refers to the right of individual states to nullify, or invalidate, federal laws that they see as unconstitutional.

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27. Which of the following is a characteristic of authoritarian forms of government?

1. Efficiency in policy making
2. Protections for the press
3. Protections for individual privacy
4. Equal representation for political minorities

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Option A is correct. In authoritarian regimes the executive office holds much more power than any other branches of government, allowing for swift political decisions that could positively or negatively affect the population. Options B, C and D are incorrect because authoritarian regimes often strongly limit press freedoms and individual privacy rights and often do not allow for strong representation of political minorities.

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28. For which of the following reasons are political action committees (PACs) often considered to be controversial?

1. They are the first to review proposed legislation in Congress.
2. They appoint people to serve as part of the Electoral College.
3. They directly communicate with foreign leaders to confirm treaties.
4. They influence public officials by making campaign contributions.

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Option D is correct. Political action committees sometimes evoke controversy by using monetary campaign contributions to influence candidates’ positions on key issues. Option A is incorrect because congressional committees review proposed legislation. Option B is incorrect because electors are typically nominated by political parties in each state and then chosen by a vote. Option C is incorrect because international treaties are confirmed by the Senate.

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Competency 005—(Culture; Science, Technology and Society): The teacher understands and applies knowledge of cultural development, adaptation and diversity, and understands and applies knowledge of interactions among science, technology and society, as defined by the Texas Essential Knowledge and Skills (TEKS).

29. Which of the following institutions in the United States can most effectively improve the standard of living and reduce the crime rate in a community?

1. Schools
2. Prisons
3. Hospitals
4. Businesses

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Option A is correct because research has shown that educational attainment is closely associated with increases in both the standard of living for individuals and reduced crime rates in communities. Option B is incorrect because there is little evidence that the presence of prisons reduces crime. Option C is incorrect because hospitals provide medical care and do not directly contribute to lower crime rates. Option D is incorrect because businesses operate primarily to generate profits.

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30. Which of the following best describes why most of the Spanish expeditions in Texas during the 1690s took place in eastern Texas?

1. The Spanish were attempting to prevent any further settlement of eastern Texas by the French.
2. Spanish Roman Catholic missionaries sought to convert the American Indian tribes in Louisiana.
3. The Spanish built presidios along the newly discovered Mississippi River to maintain ownership of the waterway.
4. Spanish colonists settled as closely as possible to French colonial settlements to facilitate trade.

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Option A is correct because although the Spanish had abandoned colonization of the Gulf Coast of Texas for over a century, the threat of encroachment into Texas by French explorer René Robert Cavelier, Sieur de la Salle pushed the Spanish to begin exploring the eastern region of Texas. Option B is incorrect because Spanish colonial activities in eastern Texas during the 1690s were primarily military expeditions in search of French settlers. Option C is incorrect because Spanish expeditions into eastern Texas during the 1690s were not meant to establish permanent settlements and did not reach as far as the Mississippi River. Temporary Spanish settlements in the eastern region of Texas would be abandoned by the mid-1690s. Option D is incorrect because the Spanish did not colonize the eastern region of Texas until the 1700s and were not initially interested in making friendly contact with the French.

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31. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the demographics of Texas since the year 2000?

1. The percentage of the population of Texas that is Hispanic is more than twice the national percentage.
2. The average age of the Texan population is much greater than the average age of the national population.
3. The rural population is growing more rapidly than the urban population in Texas.
4. American Indians are the fastest growing ethnic or racial group in Texas.

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Option A is correct because in 2006 more than 35 percent of the population of Texas was Hispanic, while in the United States as a whole, less than 15 percent of the total population was Hispanic. Option B is incorrect because the average age of the Texas population is roughly the same as the average age of the national population. Option C is incorrect because although Texas has a significant rural population, it is growing more slowly than the urban population. Option D is incorrect because the Hispanic population is the fastest-growing ethnic or racial group in Texas and was expected to grow by 53 percent between 1980 and 2040.

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32. Which of the following shared values in U.S. society is embodied by the motto on the Seal of the United States, E Pluribus Unum, which means “out of the many, one”?

1. Liberty for all
2. Freedom of speech
3. Diversity within unity
4. Importance of individuality

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Option C is correct because the motto on the seal refers to the different states coming together to form one Union. Option A is incorrect because although it is a value important to the United States, the concept of liberty for all is more closely related to the Pledge of Allegiance. Option B is incorrect because although it is a value important to the United States, freedom of speech is assured in the Bill of Rights. Option D is incorrect because the word “one” in the motto is meant to signify unity rather than individuality.

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Domain II—Social Studies Foundations, Skills and Instruction

Competency 006—(Social Studies Foundations and Skills): The teacher understands the foundations of social studies education and applies knowledge of skills used in the social sciences.

Use the excerpt from the letter of William Travis, Texan commander at the Alamo, to answer the question that follows.

To the People of Texas & all Americans in the world--

Fellow citizens & compatriots — I am besieged, by a thousand or more of the Mexicans under Santa Anna — I have sustained a continual Bombardment & cannonade for 24 hours & have not lost a man — The enemy has demanded a surrender at discretion, otherwise, the garrison are to be put to the sword, if the fort is taken — I have answered the demand with a cannon shot, & our flag still waves proudly from the walls — I shall never surrender or retreat.

33. A teacher in a seventh-grade Texas history class could best use the excerpt as a source to help students understand the

1. military tactics of the rival armies in the Texas Revolution.
2. differences in styles of leadership between Texan and Mexican commanders.
3. motivations of those fighting for the independence of Texas.
4. reasons for the Mexican government’s refusal to grant independence to Texas.

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Option C is correct because Travis’ letter provides a number of important clues as to the motivation of Texans fighting for independence. The letter is addressed to Texans and all Americans, suggesting that Travis may have wished to identify the people of the United States and possibly elicit support for the revolution from the United States government. The letter also evokes the image of a flag flying over the fort, implying that Travis and his men were inspired by patriotism. Option A is incorrect because the letter only mentions the exchange of cannon fire without providing any information about military tactics. Option B is incorrect because there is no clear information in the letter about Mexican commanders’ leadership styles. Option D is incorrect because there is no information in the letter about the Mexican government’s point of view of the Texan independence movement.

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34. Which TWO of the following could be used as primary sources for a research assignment on the Civil War?

1. A Texas history textbook
2. Letters from Confederate soldiers to their families
3. An encyclopedia entry on the battle of Antietam
4. The Texas Declaration of Secession
5. A scholarly article about Abraham Lincoln’s presidency

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Options B and D are correct. Primary sources are documents or objects that were created during a specific time period. They may offer a contemporaneous perspective of events as they occurred. Letters from Confederate soldiers could offer personal views about the war from the soldiers’ perspective, while the Texas Declaration of Secession would reflect the popular views of Texas residents at the beginning of the Civil War. Options A, C and E are incorrect because textbooks, encyclopedia entries, and scholarly journal articles are secondary sources.

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35. Which of the following classroom activities best reflects an interdisciplinary approach to Social Studies education?

1. Students research the American Indian cultures in Texas and their relation to the natural resources available in each region.
2. Students determine and compare the gross domestic products of developing countries like Mexico, the Dominican Republic, and Colombia.
3. Students create pie charts of the ethnicity, age range, and employment of the population of Texas.
4. Students search for similarities between the United States Constitution and the constitutions of other democratic countries.

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Option A is correct because the activity encompasses the disciplines of historical and anthropological research with the geographic study of available natural resources in Texas. Option B is incorrect because the activity only allows for exercise of economic skills. Option C is incorrect because the activity only allows of a sociological study of the population of Texas. Option D is incorrect because the activity reflects only a political science approach to studying constitutions.

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36. Use of a population pyramid of the United States would be most effective in answering which of the following questions?

1. Where do immigrants most often settle in the United States?
2. How much of the United States population might retire in the next twenty years?
3. How many people might immigrate to the United States in the next twenty years?
4. What is the current unemployment rate in the United States?

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Option B is correct. Population pyramids show the distribution of defined age groups in a population. Organizing population information in this way is helpful in determining the future needs of certain age groups, such as how many teachers might need to be hired to educate a large population of children or how many people might reach retirement age in the future. Option A is incorrect because population pyramids do not show geographic distribution or the movements of people around the country. Option C is incorrect because population pyramids only display the current population of the country. Option D is incorrect because population pyramids do not display the employment status for each age range.

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Competency 007—(Social Studies Instruction and Assessment): The teacher plans and implements effective instruction and assessment in social studies.

37. Which of the following activities would best demonstrate students’ ability to translate geographic data into visual formats?

1. Writing an article on the changes in population distribution of local wildlife over the past twenty years
2. Color-coding landforms and bodies of water on a black-and-white map of Texas
3. Using a handheld GPS receiver to record the coordinates of neighborhood locations on a spreadsheet
4. Creating a line graph of population growth in the five largest Texas cities since 1850

AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded

Option D is correct because converting numerical city population data into line graphs is an effective means of demonstrating the functional ability of students to convert and visually display geographic data. Option A is incorrect because writing an article is a textual presentation of information. Option B is incorrect because augmenting an existing line map with categories of land or water cover is a limited use of geographic data that would demonstrate only a basic ability to present visual information. Option C is incorrect because using a GPS receiver to record coordinates on a spreadsheet offers only the opportunity to collect data.

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38. A fifth-grade social studies teacher is teaching a lesson on the various types of governments. The teacher decides to split the class into groups and perform a jigsaw activity where groups of students learn about a form of government. The students in each group then disperse to teach what they learned to other students. Which of the following benefits does a jigsaw activity provide?

1. It allows students to independently learn the content of the lesson.
2. It allows the teacher to assess students’ ability to summarize and synthesize content
3. It ensures that students with special needs can fully participate.
4. It provides an opportunity for students to interact with teachers one-on-one.

AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded

Option B is correct because during a jigsaw activity student groups are required to share what they have learned about a particular topic with other student groups, which demonstrates the ability to synthesize and summarize information. Option A is incorrect because during a jigsaw activity, students learn from each other and not independently. Option C is incorrect because the accommodations required by special needs students are not specifically addressed. Option D is incorrect because during this activity, the students are primarily interacting with other students and not with the teacher.

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39. Which of the following should teachers consider when choosing a new technological tool to use in classroom instruction?

1. Whether students would be able to take the technology home with them
2. Whether the technology is accessible to students with disabilities
3. Whether the technology can be used for every future classroom activity
4. Whether the teacher requires instructional training before properly using the technology

AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded

Option B is correct because it is most important that technological tools in the classroom be accessible to students with learning or physical disabilities to ensure safety and fair instruction. Option A is incorrect because portability to the students’ homes is not a primary concern for most technological tools used for classroom activities. Option C is incorrect because technological tools do not need to be used in every classroom activity. Option D is incorrect because teachers should be properly trained to use any technology in a classroom setting.

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40. A seventh-grade teacher is planning a unit on American Indian cultures. Indicate in the chart below whether each planned activity would best serve as a formative assessment or a summative assessment.

For each row, select one assessment.

blank	Formative	Summative
A Venn diagram comparing three different American Indian Cultures	blank	blank
Group presentations on different American Indian cultures	blank	blank
An objective multiple-choice exam on the cultures of three American Indian groups	blank	blank

AnswerEnter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded

The correct answers are Formative, Formative, and Summative. A Venn diagram can be used as a formative assessment to help the teacher gauge students’ understanding of the connections and differences between two or more subjects and to help students organize their own knowledge in a visual format. Group presentations on differing subjects can be used as formative assessments to gauge student understanding on one subject, while allowing groups of students to teach or reinforce content to the rest of the class. Because the groups are not responsible for knowing all of the content, a group presentation cannot be used as a summative assessment for the unit. An objective multiple-choice exam given at the end of the unit can best be used as a summative assessment. Using an exam, the teacher can determine students’ individual understanding and content knowledge from the unit.

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