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Section 4: Sample Selected-Response Questions
Science 4–8 (116)

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This section presents some sample exam questions for you to review as part of your preparation for the exam. To demonstrate how each competency may be assessed, sample questions are accompanied by the competency that they measure. While studying, you may wish to read the competency before and after you consider each sample question. Please note that the competency statements do not appear on the actual exam.

For each sample exam question, there is a correct answer and a rationale for each answer option. The sample questions are included to illustrate the formats and types of questions you will see on the exam; however, your performance on the sample questions should not be viewed as a predictor of your performance on the actual exam.

The following reference materials will be available to you during the exam:

Domain I—Scientific Inquiry and Processes

Competency 001—The teacher understands how to manage learning activities to ensure the safety of all students.

1. Of the following substances, which is safest to use in a fourth-grade lab activity?

  1. Lemon juice
  2. Dilute hydrochloric acid
  3. Laundry chlorine bleach
  4. Ammonia-based window cleaner
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because lemon juice is relatively safe to use in a fourth-grade lab activity. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because dilute hydrochloric acid, laundry chlorine bleach, and ammonia-based window cleaner each cause skin irritation.
Competency 002—The teacher understands the correct use of tools, materials, equipment and technologies.

2. Of the following, which represents the largest distance?

  1. One nanometer
  2. One micrometer
  3. One light-year
  4. One astronomical unit
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because a light-year is equal to the distance that light travels in one year, about 9,460,000,000,000,000 meters. Options A and B are incorrect because one nanometer is equal to one billionth of a meter and one micrometer is equal to one millionth of a meter. Option D is incorrect because an astronomical unit is approximately equal to 149,600,000,000 meters, which is close to the average distance from Earth to the Sun. The AU is hence much shorter than a light-year.

3. Of the following, which is most appropriate to use to measure atmospheric pressure?

  1. Geiger counter
  2. Barometer
  3. Graduated cylinder
  4. Ohmmeter
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because a barometer is used to measure atmospheric pressure. Option A is incorrect because a Geiger counter is used to detect radiation such as alpha particles, beta particles, and gamma rays. Option C is incorrect because a graduated cylinder is used to measure the volume of liquids. Option D is incorrect because an ohmmeter is used to measure resistance in an electrical circuit.
Competency 003—The teacher understands the process of scientific inquiry and the history and nature of science.

4. Which THREE of the following are typically done before conducting an experiment in a middle school classroom?

  1. Making observations
  2. Developing a hypothesis
  3. Designing an experiment
  4. Drawing conclusions
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Options A, B, and C are correct because before conducting an experiment, a hypothesis should be developed based on observations, and then an experiment should be designed to test the hypothesis. Option D is incorrect because conclusions are drawn after the experimental data is analyzed.

5. Which of the following statements about the historical development of science is true?

  1. The major concepts of molecular biology were developed by the ancient Greeks.
  2. Prior to the development of x-ray technology, little was known about the human skeleton and muscles.
  3. Although the first lightbulb was developed in the late nineteenth century, many concepts about electricity were known for centuries prior to 1800.
  4. The concept of atoms was first developed in the twentieth century.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because for centuries prior to 1800 many characteristics of electricity were observed along with the development of concepts to explain or use electricity. In the nineteenth century this continued with the development of many applications including the lightbulb. Option A is incorrect because the major concepts of molecular biology were developed in the twentieth century. Option B is incorrect because many aspects of the human skeletal and muscular systems were studied thousands of years prior to the development of x-ray technology. Option D is incorrect because the earliest known concepts about atoms were developed in India and Greece more than 2,500 years ago.
Competency 004—The teacher understands how science impacts the daily lives of students and interacts with and influences personal and societal decisions.

6. Carbon dioxide is produced and emitted into the atmosphere during the operation of which of the following?

  1. Combustion engine
  2. Solar panel
  3. Wind turbine
  4. Nuclear reactor
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because the combustion reaction in a combustion engine produces carbon dioxide that is typically exhausted to the atmosphere. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because solar panels, wind turbines, and nuclear reactors do not produce carbon dioxide as they operate.

7. Ozone in the stratosphere is most closely associated with which of the following?

  1. Water pollution
  2. The production of acid rain
  3. Respiratory health issues
  4. Protection from ultraviolet radiation
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because ozone in the upper atmosphere (stratosphere) absorbs a certain amount of the ultraviolet radiation coming from the Sun and other sources in outer space. Options A and B are incorrect because ozone in the stratosphere does not contribute to water pollution or acid rain. Option C is incorrect because ozone in the atmosphere near Earth's surface can aggravate respiratory health, but ozone in the stratosphere cannot.
Competency 005—The teacher knows and understands the unifying concepts and processes that are common to all sciences.

8. The concept of force is involved in the explanation of which TWO of the following?

  1. Plate tectonics
  2. The color of leaves
  3. Gas pressure
  4. The mass of an atom
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Options A and C are correct because both plate tectonics and gas pressure involve forces. Plate tectonic forces are evident as plates in Earth's crust move. The pressure of a gas is the force per unit area exerted as a result of the collision of gaseous atoms or molecules with a surface. Option B is incorrect because the perceived color of a leaf is the result of several phenomena that are not related to force. Option D is incorrect because the mass of an atom is based on the material contained in the atom and not on the force of gravity on that material (weight).

Domain II—Physical Science

Competency 006—The teacher understands forces and motion and their relationships.

9. The tendency of an object to resist a change in its motion is known as

  1. gravitational force.
  2. inertia.
  3. linear momentum.
  4. velocity.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because the inertia of a body is the tendency of a body to resist a change in its motion. Option A is incorrect because the gravitational force is the force that two objects exert on each other. Option C is incorrect because linear momentum is the product of the mass and velocity of an object. Option D is incorrect because velocity is the speed and direction of an object's motion.

10. When a magnetic compass is brought near a wire carrying electric current, the compass needle is deflected from magnetic north. When the current is switched off, the needle points toward magnetic north. Which of the following best explains why this occurs?

  1. Good electrical conductors are also permanent magnetics.
  2. Moving electric charges produce magnetic fields.
  3. The poles of a permanent magnet are regions of excess electric charge.
  4. The magnetic field of the compass needle magnetizes the wire while the current is on.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because moving electric charges produce magnetic fields. The compass needle is deflected by that magnetic field when the compass is brought near the wire carrying the electric current. Option A is incorrect because the conducting material that the wire is made of is not a permanent magnet. A magnetic field is produced only when electric charge is flowing. Option C is incorrect because the poles of permanent magnets, such as the compass needle, are not regions of excess electric charge. Option D is incorrect because the wire is not magnetized by the magnetic field of the compass needle.
Competency 007—The teacher understands physical properties of and changes in matter.

11. Which of the following phase transitions involves the release of heat?

  1. Evaporation of liquid water
  2. Sublimation of ice
  3. Melting of ice
  4. Condensation of water vapor
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because during condensation individual gaseous water molecules lose energy as they come together to form liquid water. Hence energy is released during the process. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because evaporation, sublimation, and melting are phase transitions that each absorb energy. Liquid water is converted to gas during evaporation, solid ice is converted to gas during sublimation, and solid ice is converted to liquid during melting.

12. Which of the following is the number of neutrons in an atom of chlorine-37 (mass number 37)?

  1. 17
  2. 18
  3. 19
  4. 20
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because there are 20 neutrons in an atom of chlorine-37 (mass number equal to 37). The mass number is equal to the number of protons plus the number of neutrons in an atom. The number of protons in an atom of chlorine is equal to the atomic number, which is 17, and can be found on the periodic table. Hence the number of neutrons in an atom of this isotope of chlorine must be 20 since 17 plus 20 equals 37. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent the correct number of neutrons in an atom of chlorine-37.
Competency 008—The teacher understands chemical properties of and changes in matter.

13. Which of the following is best classified as a Brønsted-Lowry base?

  1. C A open paren O H closed paren subscript 2
  2. H subscript 2 S O subscript 4
  3. N A C L
  4. C C l subscript 4
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because C A open paren O H closed paren subscript 2 acts as a Brønsted-Lowry base, since the O H negative ions from C A open paren O H closed paren subscript 2 accept H positive ions and form H subscript 2 O when C A open paren O H closed paren subscript 2 reacts with an acid like HCl. The neutralization reaction is: C A open paren O H closed paren subscript 2 plus 2 H C L produces C A C L subscript 2 plus 2 H subscript 2 O. Option B is incorrect because H2S O subscript 4 is an acid. Options C and D are incorrect because N A C L and C C L subscript 4 are not Brønsted acids or Brønsted bases.

14. In which of the following compounds is the bonding covalent?

  1. K C l
  2. MgBr subscript 2
  3. C H subscript 4
  4. N A subscript 2 O
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because in C H subscript 4 molecules the C–H bonds are covalent. Option A is incorrect because the compound K C l has ionic bonding between metallic K positive ions and nonmetallic C l negative ions. Option B is incorrect because the compound MgBr subscript 2 has ionic bonding between metallic M g 2 positive ions and nonmetallic B r negative ions. Option D is incorrect because the compound N A subscript 2 O has ionic bonding between metallic N A positive ions and nonmetallic O superscript 2 negative ions.
Competency 009—The teacher understands energy and interactions between matter and energy.

15. Pitch is a characteristic of sound that is related to which of the following properties of a sound wave?

  1. Speed
  2. Frequency
  3. Intensity
  4. Amplitude
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because pitch is a characteristic of sound that is related to the frequency of the sound wave. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because pitch is not related to speed, intensity, or amplitude of the sound wave.
Competency 010—The teacher understands energy transformations and the conservation of matter and energy.

16. Which of the following energy transformations occurs in an alkaline battery while a flashlight is operating?

  1. Mechanical energy to chemical energy
  2. Electrical energy to mechanical energy
  3. Chemical energy to electrical energy
  4. Chemical energy to mechanical energy
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because chemical reactions in the alkaline battery produce electrical energy that is used by the flashlight. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not represent correct energy transformations that occur in an alkaline battery.

blank N subscript 2 open paren g close paren plus blank O subscript 2 open paren g close paren produces blank N O subscript 2 open paren g close paren

17. If the chemical equation above is balanced using the smallest possible whole-number coefficients, the coefficient for NO2(g) would be which of the following?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because the balanced equation is N subscript 2 open paren g close paren plus 2 O subscript 2 open paren g close paren produces 2 N O subscript 2 open paren g close paren. This indicates that the coefficient for N O subscript 2 is 2. Conservation of mass requires that for each element the number of atoms on the product side of the equation be equal to the number of atoms on the reactant side of the equation. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not balance the equation using the smallest possible whole-number coefficients.

Domain III—Life Science

Competency 011—The teacher understands the structure and function of living things.

18. Which of the following groups of organisms have gills at some point in their life after birth?

  1. Reptiles
  2. Amphibians
  3. Birds
  4. Earthworms
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because the larval forms of amphibians all live in water and have gills. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because reptiles, birds and earthworms do not have gills.

19. In animals, which of the following cell structures is most directly associated with the production of chemical energy?

  1. Plasma membrane
  2. Nucleus
  3. Golgi apparatus
  4. Mitochondrion
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because mitochondria in cells generate most of the cell's supply of ATP, which is used as a source of chemical energy. Option A is incorrect because the plasma membrane (or cell membrane) which separates the interior and exterior of the cell has a variety of functions, but none of those include the production of chemical energy. Option B is incorrect because a cell's nucleus stores genetic material and is primarily a control center. Option C is incorrect because the Golgi apparatus is involved in the processing of some newly synthesized proteins.
Competency 012—The teacher understands reproduction and the mechanisms of heredity.

20. An organism that is homozygous for the dominant allele open paren capital S capital S close paren of the gene for skin color has green skin color. An individual of the same species that is homozygous for the recessive allele open paren lowercase s lowercase s close paren of the gene for skin color has gray skin color. When a homozygous individual with green skin mates with a heterozygous individual open paren capital S lowercase s close paren, which of the following is expected?

  1. A 100% probability that the offspring will have green skin
  2. A 75% probability that the offspring will have green skin
  3. A 50% probability that the offspring will have green skin
  4. A 100% probability that the offspring will have gray skin
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because in complete dominance, a cross between a homozygous individual open paren capital S capital S close paren and a heterozygous individual open paren capital S lowercase s close paren is predicted to produce offspring with green skin (100%). The possible genotypes of offspring produced by the cross are capital S capital S and capital S lowercase s, both of which have the phenotype of green skin. Options B and C are incorrect because 100% of the offspring are predicted to have green skin. Option D is incorrect because in order for any of the offspring to have gray skin, each parent must have at least one recessive allele.

21. Which of the following is a true statement about nucleic acids?

  1. They produce sugar molecules using light energy.
  2. They transport materials from one cell to another.
  3. They provide a protective barrier between a cell and the environment.
  4. They store and transmit genetic information.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because nucleic acids store the genetic information of a cell, and use the information to direct normal cell function and to transmit the information to daughter cells. Option A is incorrect because nucleic acids do not produce sugar molecules. Option B is incorrect because nucleic acids do not transport materials between cells. Option C is incorrect because there are no nucleic acids in the cell membranes and cell walls that protect cells.
Competency 013—The teacher understands adaptations of organisms and the theory of evolution.

22. Which of the following is an example of homologous structures?

  1. A human hand and a human foot
  2. A wing flap of a sugar glider and a wing flap of a flying squirrel
  3. A bat wing and a human arm
  4. A butterfly wing and a bird wing
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because in evolutionary biology a bat wing is homologous to a human arm. Homologous structures are adapted to different purposes as a result of descent with modification from a common ancestor. Option A is incorrect because a human hand is not homologous to a human foot. Options B and D are incorrect because in evolutionary biology they arose from convergent evolution from different ancestors and are examples of analogous structures.

23. Of the following statements, which best describes natural selection?

  1. Natural selection is the process by which adaptations acquired by individuals during their lives are passed down to the next generation.
  2. Natural selection is the process by which environmental changes cause mutations to occur.
  3. Natural selection is the process by which better-adapted individuals in a population leave more descendants than do less well-adapted individuals.
  4. Natural selection is the process by which one species competes with another species for the same natural resource.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because in natural selection better-adapted individuals in a population leave more descendants than do less well-adapted individuals. Option A is incorrect because the concept that adaptations acquired by individuals during their lives can be passed down to the next generation is not a mechanism of natural selection but is known as Lamarckism. Option B is incorrect because the occurrence of a new mutation is not the equivalent of natural selection. Option D is incorrect because species competing for the same natural resource is not a description of natural selection.
Competency 014—The teacher understands regulatory mechanisms and behavior.

24. Marine birds use salt glands to remove excess salt from the seawater they drink. The maintenance of a balance between water and salt in marine birds is an example of

  1. metabolism.
  2. homeostasis.
  3. translation.
  4. conservation of energy.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because homeostasis is a process that maintains the stability of internal conditions such as the maintenance of a balance between salt and water in a marine bird. Option A is incorrect because metabolism is a set of life-sustaining chemical reactions within the cells of organisms. Option C is incorrect because translation is the process of producing proteins based on an mRNA template. Option D is incorrect because there is a net expenditure of energy in the maintenance of a balance between salt and water in a marine bird.
Competency 015—The teacher understands the relationships between organisms and the environment.

25. Certain birds that forage for insects on the ground around grazing animals exhibit much greater success in capturing prey than when they forage alone. The observation described is an illustration of which of the following?

  1. Parasitism
  2. Mutualism
  3. Competition
  4. Commensalism
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because in commensalism an organism of one species benefits from an organism of another species without affecting the other. Option A is incorrect because in parasitism an organism of one species benefits to the detriment of an organism of another species. The birds benefit, but not at the expense of the grazing animals. Option B is incorrect because in mutualism interacting organisms of two different species benefit. In this example, there is no indication that the grazing animals benefit from the birds. Option C is incorrect because competition involves organisms competing for the same resource. The birds and the grazing animals eat different food.

26. Which of the following is a primary producer in a food chain?

  1. Grass
  2. Cow
  3. Sparrow
  4. Fox
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because grass is a primary producer. Primary producers are the organisms in an ecosystem that produce biomass from inorganic compounds. Option B is incorrect because a cow is a primary consumer. Option C is incorrect because a sparrow is a primary consumer when it eats plants and a secondary consumer when it eats insects. Option D is incorrect because a fox is a secondary consumer.

Domain IV—Earth and Space Science

Competency 016—The teacher understands the structure and function of Earth systems.

27. Which of the following were formed primarily by glacial activity?

  1. Mountain ranges
  2. Barrier islands
  3. Fjords
  4. Atolls
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because fjords (narrow inlets of the sea between steep slopes) were created by glacial erosion. Option A is incorrect because mountain ranges were not formed by glacial activity but by several different plate tectonic processes, depending on the particular mountain range (e.g., collision of continental plates or volcanism). Option B is incorrect because barrier islands are found along coastlines and are formed by a variety of processes that do not typically include glacial activity (e.g., wave action). Option D is incorrect because an atoll is formed when a coral reef grows around a volcanic island, which then disappears.

28. Of the following gases, which is found in highest abundance in the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere, the troposphere?

  1. Hydrogen
  2. Helium
  3. Carbon dioxide
  4. Water vapor
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because water vapor constitutes approximately 0.3–4.0% of the gases in the troposphere. The amount of water vapor varies, but is more than the amount of hydrogen, helium, and carbon dioxide. Options A and B are incorrect because there are only trace amounts of hydrogen and helium in the troposphere. Option C is incorrect because carbon dioxide constitutes approximately 0.04% of the gases in the troposphere.
Competency 017—The teacher understands cycles in Earth systems.

29. Which of the following is an igneous rock?

  1. Slate
  2. Granite
  3. Shale
  4. Limestone
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because granite is an igneous rock. Option A is incorrect because slate is a metamorphic rock. Options C and D are incorrect because shale and limestone are sedimentary rocks.

30. Which of the following is a scale of mineral hardness used to help identify minerals?

  1. Fujita
  2. Mohs
  3. Saffir-Simpson
  4. Richter
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because the Mohs scale is a mineral hardness scale used to help identify minerals. Option A is incorrect because the Fujita scale is used to describe tornado intensity. Option C is incorrect because the Saffir-Simpson scale is used to describe hurricane wind speed. Option D is incorrect because the Richter scale is used to describe earthquake magnitude.
Competency 018—The teacher understands the role of energy in weather and climate.

31. At a fixed atmospheric pressure, the temperature at which water vapor in the air condenses at the same rate that liquid water evaporates is called the

  1. dew point.
  2. triple point.
  3. relative humidity.
  4. heat index.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because at the dew point, the air is saturated with water vapor (relative humidity is 100%) and the rate of condensation equals the rate of evaporation. Below the dew point, there will be noticeable condensation appearing, often called dew. Option B is incorrect because the triple point of water is the temperature and pressure at which solid, liquid, and gaseous water are in equilibrium. Option C is incorrect because relative humidity is a ratio between the water vapor pressure of the atmosphere and the saturation water vapor pressure at a particular temperature and pressure. Option D is incorrect because the heat index, typically used when the temperature is high, combines air temperature and relative humidity in a way that provides a human-perceived “temperature”.

32. Wispy, feathery clouds that form at relatively high altitude are called

  1. cumulus clouds.
  2. cumulonimbus clouds.
  3. nimbostratus clouds.
  4. cirrus clouds.
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Option D is correct because cirrus clouds are wispy, feathery clouds that form at relatively high altitude. Option A is incorrect because cumulus clouds are generally dense and detached clouds that develop vertically in the form of rising mounds with bulging upper parts. Option B is incorrect because cumulonimbus clouds are thunderstorm clouds that are heavy and dense clouds in the form of a mountain or tower. Option C is incorrect because nimbostratus clouds are continuous rain clouds that are dark gray and can be thick enough to blot out the Sun.
Competency 019—The teacher understands the characteristics of the solar system and the universe.

33. Which of the following is true about objects in our solar system?

  1. The Sun is one of the largest known stars in the universe.
  2. Neptune is farther from the Sun than any of the other planets.
  3. Although Jupiter has the largest diameter of the planets, it has a smaller mass than Earth, since it is composed largely of hydrogen and helium.
  4. Since Mercury is the closest planet to the Sun, all of its surface is always at an extremely high temperature.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because Neptune is the farthest planet from the Sun, at a distance of approximately 4.5 billion kilometers. Option A is incorrect because the Sun is an average-size star. Option C is incorrect because Jupiter has a mass that is about 318 times as great as Earth's mass. Option D is incorrect because although temperatures on many parts of Mercury can be very high, the poles are very cold all the time, and temperatures in other areas vary widely from nighttime to daytime, since Mercury has no atmosphere and rotates on its axis very slowly.

34. Of the following, which best describes a white dwarf?

  1. A large asteroid that is almost the size of a planet
  2. A small comet as it approaches the Sun
  3. A late stage in the life cycle of a low-mass star
  4. The precursor to a black hole
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because white dwarf is a late stage in the life cycle of a low-mass star. Options A and B are incorrect because a white dwarf is a type of star, not an asteroid or comet. Option D is incorrect because a black hole is usually the last stage in the life cycle of a star with a very large mass, much greater than that of the Sun.
Competency 020—The teacher understands the history of the Earth system.

35. Which of the following is true about radiometric dating?

  1. Since the half-life of carbon-14 is 5,730 years, radiocarbon dating methods are limited to about 60,000 years.
  2. Radiometric dating is a relative dating method that infers the age of a fossil by noting the relative position of the rock layer in which it is found.
  3. Radiometric dating is based on measuring current solar output and comparing it to the amount of carbon in plant fossils that was produced by photosynthesis in the past.
  4. Radiometric dating is dangerous, since the researcher is exposed to high doses of radiation.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because after about ten half-lives (about 60,000 years) the amount of carbon-14 in the sample being analyzed would be less than 0.1% of the amount in the original sample 60,000 years ago. During each half-life, half of the remaining carbon-14 radioactively decays. So after 10 half-lives, the amount of carbon-14 in the sample is equal to open paren one half close paren to the power of 10 times the original amount of carbon-14. Option B is incorrect because radiometric dating is an absolute dating method. Option C is incorrect because radiometric dating is based on decay rates of radioactive isotopes of certain elements that were in the original sample. Option D is incorrect because the samples being tested emit very small amounts of radioactive decay products and are within safe ranges for human exposure under appropriate testing conditions.

Domain V—Science Learning, Instruction and Assessment

Competency 021—The teacher has theoretical and practical knowledge about teaching science and about how students learn science.

36. Of the following, which would be most helpful in expanding the students' knowledge after a short introductory lesson about forces?

  1. A video showing how various batting styles affect the distance a baseball travels
  2. A teacher demonstration in which forces are applied to several objects
  3. A homework assignment in which students write examples of forces in everyday life
  4. A lab activity in which students slide objects made from various materials down an inclined plane
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because the activity will give the students a first-hand opportunity to observe the effect of gravitational and frictional forces on the motion of objects. Option A is incorrect because the students cannot analyze all the components that determine the distance a ball travels by watching the video. Option B is incorrect because the students can only infer what forces may have been involved in the demonstration and cannot directly analyze the effect of forces on objects of varying mass and made of varying materials. Option C is incorrect because although observing and noting examples of forces in their daily life will be helpful to the students, it will not provide as much opportunity to explore the effect of forces as the lab activity will.

37. Which of the following student statements is an example of a student misconception about science?

  1. When a net force is continuously applied to an object, it accelerates.
  2. Objects must have a large amount of air in them in order to float.
  3. Not all animals have a heart as part of their circulatory system.
  4. Many chemical compounds are highly insoluble in water.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because the student statement that objects must have a large amount of air in them to float is a misconception. The upward buoyant force experienced by a submerged object is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by the object. The density of the object will be a good predictor of whether an object will float. Although objects with large amounts of air in them are often seen floating, that observation does not contradict the fact that objects with no air in them that have a lower density less than the density of the liquid will float. Option A is incorrect because the student statement that an object will accelerate when a net force is applied to it is not a misconception and is correct based on Newton's second law of motion. Option C is incorrect because the student statement that not all animals have a heart as part of their circulatory systems is true and is not a misconception. For example, jellyfish and starfish do not have a heart. Option D is incorrect because the student statement that many chemical compounds are highly insoluble in water is true and is not a misconception. For example, silver chloride and paraffin are highly insoluble in water.
Competency 022—The teacher understands the process of scientific inquiry and its role in science instruction.

38. Of the following, which best illustrates a student inquiry-based activity?

  1. Students conduct an acid-base titration with vinegar and baking soda after developing a hypothesis about neutralization.
  2. Students write the formulas for some compounds based on the location on the periodic table of the elements in the compound.
  3. Students write down observations as the teacher conducts a demonstration of a combustion reaction.
  4. Students use the Internet to research the causes of the outbreak of a disease that has recently been reported in the news.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because a student inquiry-based activity involves the students generating and testing hypotheses. Option B is incorrect because although an assignment to write formulas based on periodic trends is a good activity to reinforce and apply concepts learned in class, it is not an example of a student inquiry-based activity. Option C is incorrect because although writing down observations is a preliminary step in the inquiry process, by itself it is not a student inquiry-based activity. Option D is incorrect because although looking up information about something on the Internet can be helpful, it is not an example of a student inquiry-based activity.

39. Students are asked to build model windmills using materials found in the home or classroom. Small generators and electrical connectors are provided by the teacher, as well as fans to simulate wind. Once the models have been built and tested, which of the following questions asked by the teacher would best encourage students to develop hypotheses about ways to improve the energy efficiency of their models?

  1. Is your model energy efficient?
  2. How can you determine the energy efficiency of your model?
  3. How would changing the shape or position of the windmill blades affect the energy efficiency of your model?
  4. How would reducing the number of components used to build your model increase the energy efficiency of your model?
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because this question will encourage students to develop hypotheses about what shapes or positions of the windmill blades can increase the efficiency of the windmill by capturing more of the kinetic energy of the wind. Options A and B are incorrect because these questions will encourage students to find a way to collect data to determine the efficiency of the windmill rather than to develop hypotheses about how to improve the energy efficiency. Option D is incorrect because this question will not encourage the students to develop hypotheses about how to improve the energy efficiency. The question focuses on other issues such as reducing cost by reducing materials used.
Competency 023—The teacher knows the varied and appropriate assessments and assessment practices to monitor science learning in laboratory, field and classroom settings.

40. Giving a written multiple-choice final examination at the end of the school year is an example of

  1. a performance assessment.
  2. a formative assessment.
  3. a summative assessment.
  4. an informal assessment.
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because a summative assessment occurs after completion of learning and assesses what has been learned and how well it has been learned. Option A is incorrect because a performance assessment involves evaluating a student's performance of a task, such as a lab activity, to assess how well the student understands concepts he or she has learned. Option B is incorrect because a formative assessment is used to monitor student progress and to inform both student and teacher of areas that need additional work. Option D is incorrect because a written multiple-choice final exam is a formal assessment.
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